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The nurse receives an order to give atropine 300mcg SQ now. The medication is available in 1mg/mL vial. How many mL should the nurse administer?
(Record the answer to the tenth, or one decimal place. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["0.3"]

  1. Convert the ordered dose from micrograms (mcg) to milligrams (mg):

    • 300 mcg = 0.3 mg (since 1 mg = 1000 mcg)

  2. Use the formula:
    Dose to administer = (Desired Dose ÷ On-Hand Dose) × Quantity Available

    • Desired Dose (D) = 0.3 mg
    • On-Hand Dose (H) = 1 mg
    • Quantity Available (Q) = 1 mL

  3. Calculate:
    0.3 mg ÷ 1 mg × 1 mL = 0.3 mL

The nurse should administer 0.3 mL of the medication.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

a. The symptoms described (bruises, dark tarry stools, elevated INR) are indicative of warfarin overdose or excessive anticoagulation, not leukemia.

b. This is the correct answer because holding the warfarin is necessary to prevent further bleeding complications, and consulting the provider is essential for guidance on the next steps.

c. Giving Vitamin K may be necessary in cases of severe bleeding due to warfarin, but it is not the initial action. Consulting the provider is the priority.

d. Giving warfarin with a dark green salad may exacerbate the situation and increase the risk of bleeding. Checking the next stool for blood does not address the immediate issue of anticoagulation excess.

Correct Answer is ["0.5"]

Explanation

- The formula is: (Desired dose / Available dose) x Quantity = Number of tablets - In this case: (10 mg / 20 mg) x 1 tablet = 0.5 tablet

- Round the answer to the tenth, or one decimal place, as instructed.

- The final answer is: 0.5 tablet

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