The nurse teaches a student nurse about diagnostic studies used for acute coronary syndrome. Which statement made by the student nurse indicates effective learning?
"A nitroprusside stress echocardiogram is used for patients with acute pericarditis."
"A pathologic Q wave is always present in the electrocardiogram (ECG) of patients with unstable angina."
"Serum cardiac markers are proteins that are released from necrotic heart muscle."
"Coronary angiography is the only way to confirm the diagnosis of unstable angina."
The Correct Answer is C
This statement indicates effective learning because serum cardiac markers are indeed proteins that are released from necrotic (damaged) heart muscle cells when there is myocardial injury, such as in acute coronary syndrome (ACS). These markers are measured in blood tests and help in the diagnosis and assessment of ACS, particularly myocardial infarction (heart attack).
Option A is incorrect because a nitroprusside stress echocardiogram is not used for acute pericarditis. It is a diagnostic test used for evaluating coronary artery disease and ischemia.
Option B is incorrect because a pathologic Q wave is not always present in the electrocardiogram (ECG) of patients with unstable angina. It is a characteristic finding in the ECG of patients with a previous myocardial infarction (heart attack) but may not be present in unstable angina.
Option D is incorrect because coronary angiography is not the only way to confirm the diagnosis of unstable angina. Unstable angina is primarily diagnosed based on the clinical presentation, symptoms, and changes in the ECG. Coronary angiography is an invasive procedure used to visualize the coronary arteries directly and is typically reserved for cases where further assessment and intervention are needed, such as in cases of suspected coronary artery disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
For a patient admitted with syncopal (fainting) episodes of unknown origin, the most appropriate action to include in the plan of care is to instruct the patient to call for assistance before getting out of bed.
Syncope can be caused by various factors, including orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure upon standing) or cardiac-related issues. One of the common triggers for syncopal episodes is getting up from a lying or sitting position too quickly. By instructing the patient to call for assistance before getting out of bed, the nurse aims to prevent falls and potential injuries that may occur due to sudden fainting episodes.
While it's essential to educate the patient about potential causes of syncope (option A) and the benefits of implantable cardioverter-defibrillators (option B) if applicable to their condition, these actions may not directly address the immediate safety concern of preventing falls during syncopal episodes.
Option D, teaching the patient about the need to avoid caffeine and other stimulants, may be relevant if stimulants are identified as potential triggers for syncope in this particular patient. However, it is not the most critical action to include in the initial plan of care for a patient with syncopal episodes of unknown origin.
In summary, the top priority for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the patient by instructing them to call for assistance before getting out of bed to prevent falls during syncopal episodes until further evaluation and diagnosis can determine the cause of the fainting episodes.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD), metabolic acidosis is a common acid-base disorder due to impaired excretion of acid and decreased bicarbonate reabsorption in the kidneys. The arterial blood gas values associated with metabolic acidosis in CKD are a low pH (acidemia), low bicarbonate (HCO3-), and normal or low partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2). Option A fits this pattern, with a pH of 7.25 (acidic), HCO3- of 19 mEq/L (low), and a PaCO2 of 30 mm Hg (within the normal to low range).
Option B shows a pH of 7.30 (acidic) but with a higher bicarbonate level of 26 mEq/L, which is not consistent with metabolic acidosis. The elevated bicarbonate level suggests metabolic alkalosis, which is not expected in a client with CKD.
Option C has a pH of 7.50 (alkaline) with an elevated bicarbonate level of 20 mEq/L and a low PaCO2 of 32 mm Hg. This set of values is indicative of metabolic alkalosis, which is not expected in a client with CKD.
Option D has a pH of 7.55 (alkaline) with an elevated bicarbonate level of 30 mEq/L and a low PaCO2 of 31 mm Hg. This set of values is indicative of metabolic alkalosis, which is not expected in a client with CKD.
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