The physician tells a newly pregnant patient that she is having monozygotic twins.
Which of the following statements by this patient would indicate a need for further teaching by the nurse?
That means there was only one egg.
We are having identical twins! How lovely.
I wonder how we will tell them apart?
It's possible they could both be girls or boys, or one of each.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Monozygotic twins originate from a single zygote, which forms from the fertilization of one egg by one sperm. This single zygote subsequently divides into two genetically identical embryos. Therefore, the statement "That means there was only one egg" accurately reflects the biological basis of monozygotic twinning, as opposed to dizygotic twins arising from two separate eggs.
Choice B rationale
Monozygotic twins are colloquially known as "identical twins" because they develop from a single fertilized egg that splits. This results in two individuals who share nearly identical genetic material, leading to very similar physical characteristics. The patient's statement "We are having identical twins! How lovely" correctly identifies this key characteristic of monozygotic twinning.
Choice C rationale
Given that monozygotic twins are genetically identical and thus physically very similar, distinguishing between them can often be challenging, especially in infancy. Their shared genetic makeup means they typically have the same blood type, hair color, eye color, and often similar fingerprints, making the question of how to tell them apart a common and valid concern for parents.
Choice D rationale
Monozygotic twins arise from a single zygote, meaning they share the same genetic sex chromosomes (XX for female or XY for male). Therefore, they will always be of the same sex, either both girls or both boys. The statement "It's possible they could both be girls or boys, or one of each" is incorrect because it implies the possibility of different sexes, which only occurs in dizygotic (fraternal) twins.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Essure procedure involves hysteroscopic placement of micro-inserts into the fallopian tubes, inducing a foreign body reaction and fibrosis, leading to permanent occlusion. This method is considered irreversible and suitable for women who desire no future pregnancies, which contradicts the patient's stated wish for more children in a few years. Therefore, it is inappropriate.
Choice B rationale
NuvaRing is a combined hormonal contraceptive delivering ethinyl estradiol and etonogestrel. Estrogen components in combined hormonal contraceptives can reduce milk supply in breastfeeding mothers by inhibiting prolactin secretion from the anterior pituitary gland, which is essential for lactogenesis. Thus, it is generally not recommended for breastfeeding women, especially in the early postpartum period.
Choice C rationale
Mirena, a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS), primarily acts by thickening cervical mucus, inhibiting sperm motility and capacitation, and thinning the endometrial lining. As it contains only progestin and minimal systemic absorption occurs, it does not significantly impact milk production and is considered safe and effective for breastfeeding women seeking reversible contraception.
Choice D rationale
Combined oral contraceptive pills contain both estrogen and progestin. The estrogen component can suppress lactation by interfering with prolactin's action on mammary glands, potentially reducing breast milk volume and duration of breastfeeding. This makes them less ideal for a new mother who is actively breastfeeding and wishes to continue.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) can be effective in managing primary dysmenorrhea by suppressing ovulation and reducing prostaglandin production, which lessens uterine contractions. However, they are not typically the *optimal initial pharmacologic therapy* for acute pain relief, but rather a long-term management strategy for persistent or severe symptoms.
Choice B rationale
Aspirin, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and can provide some pain relief for dysmenorrhea. However, its anti-inflammatory effects are generally weaker compared to other NSAIDs, and it carries a higher risk of gastrointestinal side effects and Reye's syndrome in children, making it less optimal than other NSAIDs.
Choice C rationale
Acetaminophen is an analgesic that primarily works by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis in the central nervous system, providing pain relief and fever reduction. While it can alleviate mild pain, it lacks the peripheral anti-inflammatory properties of NSAIDs, which are crucial for targeting the prostaglandin-mediated uterine contractions in dysmenorrhea.
Choice D rationale
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are considered the optimal pharmacologic therapy for primary dysmenorrhea because they effectively inhibit the production of prostaglandins. Prostaglandins are potent uterine smooth muscle stimulants and vasoconstrictors, directly causing the painful uterine contractions and ischemia associated with dysmenorrhea.
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