The PMHNP is evaluating a new patient, a 31-year-old woman who was referred by her primary care provider (PCP). She complains of feeling fatigued for the past 3 months, and this fatigue has caused her to stop socializing. Upon further questioning, she reports feeling uncomfortable sensations in her legs in the evenings. She describes the sensations as burning and tingling, and states that she has to walk around to get any relief. Which diagnosis best fits her clinical picture?
REM sleep behavior disorder
Restless legs syndrome (RLS)
Circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorder
Hypersomnolence disorder
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: REM sleep behavior disorder involves acting out dreams due to loss of normal muscle atonia during REM sleep. It typically presents with violent movements or vocalizations during sleep, not with uncomfortable leg sensations or the urge to move the legs.
Choice B reason: Restless legs syndrome is characterized by an urge to move the legs, often accompanied by uncomfortable sensations such as burning or tingling, especially in the evening or at rest. Symptoms are relieved by movement and can interfere with sleep and social functioning, matching the patient’s description.
Choice C reason: Circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorders involve misalignment between the internal circadian clock and the external environment, leading to sleep disturbances. These disorders do not typically present with sensory symptoms in the legs.
Choice D reason: Hypersomnolence disorder is marked by excessive daytime sleepiness despite adequate sleep duration. It does not involve sensory discomfort or the urge to move the legs, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this case.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: ARDS is characterized by acute onset of hypoxemia and bilateral pulmonary infiltrates not fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload. The hallmark radiographic finding is diffuse bilateral opacities on chest imaging, which reflect alveolar damage and fluid accumulation. This is the most consistent and diagnostic imaging feature of ARDS.
Choice B reason: Hyperinflation, flattened diaphragm, and increased anterior-posterior diameter are typical findings in obstructive lung diseases such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), not ARDS. These features suggest air trapping rather than alveolar flooding or collapse.
Choice C reason: Increased interstitial markings and thickened bronchial walls are more indicative of chronic bronchitis or other interstitial lung diseases. These findings are not specific to ARDS and do not reflect the acute alveolar injury seen in ARDS.
Choice D reason: Consolidation or parapneumonic effusion may be seen in bacterial pneumonia or other infectious processes, but they are not characteristic of ARDS. ARDS typically presents with diffuse, non-lobar infiltrates rather than focal consolidation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: While testicular cancer is most common in men aged 15–35, limiting self-exams to this age range may miss cases in older men. Monthly self-exams are recommended starting at age 18 and continuing throughout adulthood.
Choice B reason: This age range excludes younger men who are at higher risk for testicular cancer. It is not consistent with preventive guidelines.
Choice C reason: Testicular cancer is less common in men over 45, and this age range does not reflect the peak incidence period.
Choice D reason: Monthly testicular self-exams are recommended for men aged 18 and older to promote early detection of testicular cancer, which has a high cure rate when caught early. Regular self-exams help men become familiar with their baseline anatomy and detect changes promptly.
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