A 43-year-old male patient with chronic schizophrenia does not want to take his medication. Which nonpharmacologic modality is the most appropriate for this client?
Structural group therapy
Inpatient hospitalization
Intensive outpatient hospitalization
Assertive community treatment (ACT)
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Structural group therapy may be beneficial for social skills and peer support but is not sufficient for managing medication nonadherence in chronic schizophrenia. It lacks the intensive, individualized outreach needed for this scenario.
Choice B reason: Inpatient hospitalization is appropriate for acute psychiatric crises, such as danger to self or others, but may not be necessary if the patient is stable and simply nonadherent. It is not a long-term solution for chronic management.
Choice C reason: Intensive outpatient programs provide structured treatment but may not offer the level of outreach and flexibility needed for patients who are resistant to care or disengaged from services.
Choice D reason: Assertive Community Treatment (ACT) is a multidisciplinary, team-based approach designed for individuals with severe mental illness who are nonadherent or difficult to engage. It includes outreach, medication management, and support in the community, making it the most appropriate choice for this client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Diminished lung sounds are a respiratory finding and not associated with rhinosinusitis. They may indicate pneumonia, pleural effusion, or other pulmonary conditions.
Choice B reason: ABRS is diagnosed when symptoms such as purulent nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, and facial pain persist beyond 10 days or worsen after initial improvement (double worsening). This distinguishes bacterial from viral sinusitis.
Choice C reason: Altered mental status is not a typical feature of uncomplicated ABRS. It may suggest complications such as intracranial extension or sepsis, which are rare and require urgent evaluation.
Choice D reason: Low-grade fever may occur in ABRS but is not specific or diagnostic. It can also be present in viral infections or other inflammatory conditions. The persistence and progression of cardinal symptoms are more reliable indicators.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This describes the pathophysiology of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), not ulcerative colitis. UC affects the colon, not the esophagus.
Choice B reason: This explanation pertains to peptic ulcer disease, where H. pylori and NSAIDs disrupt gastric mucosal defenses. It does not apply to UC, which is an inflammatory bowel disease.
Choice C reason: These factors may influence general gastrointestinal health or contribute to irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), but they do not explain the autoimmune and inflammatory nature of UC.
Choice D reason: Ulcerative colitis is characterized by chronic inflammation of the colon due to defects in the epithelial barrier, dysregulated immune responses, abnormal leukocyte trafficking, and altered gut microbiota. These mechanisms lead to mucosal ulceration, bleeding, and systemic symptoms.
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