The PMHNP is treating a 45-year-old woman with a 30-year history of treatment-resistant depression who has tried every available medication, with little success. Today, the patient states that she is having suicidal ideation but has no plan. Which treatment option would the PMHNP discuss with her?
Electroconvulsive therapy
Exposure therapy
A support group
Exercise
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is the most effective treatment for severe, treatment-resistant depression, particularly when multiple medication trials have failed. ECT can rapidly reduce suicidal ideation and depressive symptoms and is indicated in cases where there is high clinical urgency.
Choice B reason: Exposure therapy is primarily used to treat anxiety disorders, phobias, and PTSD, not major depressive disorder, and would not be effective in this context.
Choice C reason: Support groups provide emotional support and social connection but are not sufficient as a primary intervention for severe, treatment-resistant depression with suicidal ideation.
Choice D reason: Exercise can improve mood and has adjunctive benefits for mild to moderate depression, but it is not an effective treatment for severe, chronic, or treatment-resistant depression, especially with suicidal ideation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: While parental assistance may influence outcomes, framing it as “cheating” is inappropriate and may create unnecessary anxiety.
Choice B reason: ADOS evaluates a child’s social and communication abilities independently. Parents must leave so the examiner can observe the child’s behaviors without external influence, ensuring accurate assessment.
Choice C reason: Difficulty in observing the child is not the primary rationale; the goal is to evaluate independent behavior.
Choice D reason: Parental presence may affect behavior, but the main purpose is not to prevent upset, but to accurately assess skills independently.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Anorexia nervosa involves significant restriction of caloric intake leading to low body weight. This patient has a BMI in the overweight range, making anorexia nervosa unlikely.
Choice B reason: Binge eating disorder involves episodic overeating without compensatory behaviors. Tooth erosion is not typically associated with binge eating disorder, making this diagnosis less likely.
Choice C reason: Atypical eating disorder is a broader term but lacks the specific oral findings that suggest purging behaviors.
Choice D reason: Bulimia nervosa is characterized by recurrent binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors such as self-induced vomiting. Frequent vomiting leads to enamel erosion, particularly on the front teeth, which aligns with the dentist's findings, making this the most likely diagnosis.
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