The PMHNP working on an inpatient eating disorders unit is evaluating a 17-year-old girl with suspected anorexia nervosa. Her laboratory results reveal elevated serum cholesterol levels, elevated serum salivary amylase concentrations, and decreased fasting glucose concentrations. Which electrocardiography (ECG) changes will help confirm the diagnosis?
No significant ECG changes
Ventricular tachycardia
Sinus bradycardia
Torsades de pointes
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: ECG changes are commonly seen in patients with anorexia nervosa due to malnutrition and electrolyte imbalances, so "no significant changes" is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Ventricular tachycardia is a life-threatening arrhythmia usually secondary to severe electrolyte disturbances, not a typical finding in early anorexia nervosa.
Choice C reason: This is correct. Sinus bradycardia is a common cardiac manifestation in anorexia nervosa, reflecting physiologic adaptation to malnutrition, reduced metabolic demands, and increased vagal tone. It is a supportive finding for the diagnosis.
Choice D reason: Torsades de pointes is associated with prolonged QT intervals and severe hypokalemia or other electrolyte disturbances. While it may occur in extreme cases, it is not a typical finding in initial anorexia nervosa evaluation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: The patient demonstrates obsessions (intrusive thoughts about knocking) and compulsions (compelled to answer the door) that are time-consuming and distressing, consistent with OCD.
Choice B reason: Schizophrenia would involve persistent psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized thinking, without insight; this patient recognizes the “imagination” aspect.
Choice C reason: Social anxiety disorder involves fear of social situations and judgment, not compulsions or intrusive thoughts as described here.
Choice D reason: Delusional disorder involves fixed, false beliefs; the patient has insight that his experiences are irrational, making this diagnosis unlikely.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: While ODD generally has an onset before age 12, knowing the age of onset alone does not allow the PMHNP to definitively rule out the disorder. It is a characteristic rather than a diagnostic threshold.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because ODD is a recognized psychiatric diagnosis according to DSM-5. While psychotherapy is a common treatment, dismissing it as “not an actual diagnosis” is inaccurate.
Choice C reason: This option outlines a symptom threshold for a shorter period (3 months), but DSM-5 specifies that the behavior must persist for 6 months, making this choice incomplete for diagnostic exclusion.
Choice D reason: This is the correct answer. According to DSM-5, ODD is defined by a pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness lasting at least 6 months, with at least four symptoms present. The patient’s behavior began only 2 months ago, which helps rule out ODD as the diagnosis at this time.
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