The psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner is treating a 6-year-old boy with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) who has not responded to 9 months of psychosocial therapy and continues hitting his younger brother. What is the most appropriate treatment for the PMHNP to initiate at this time?
Sertraline (Zoloft) 10 mg PO once per day
Carbamazepine (Tegretol) 200 mg PO once per day
Risperidone (Risperdal) 0.25 mg PO once per day
Venlafaxine (Effexor) 37.5 mg PO once per day
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Sertraline, an SSRI, may help with anxiety or repetitive behaviors but has limited evidence for treating aggression in children with ASD.
Choice B reason: Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant, sometimes used for mood stabilization, but is not first-line for irritability or aggression in ASD.
Choice C reason: Risperidone is FDA-approved for irritability, aggression, and self-injurious behavior in children with ASD and is considered first-line pharmacologic treatment for these behaviors.
Choice D reason: Venlafaxine, an SNRI, is not indicated for aggression in ASD and lacks evidence for treating behavioral symptoms in this population.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Existential therapy focuses on meaning and personal responsibility and is not evidence-based for panic disorder treatment.
Choice B reason: Humanistic therapy emphasizes self-actualization and personal growth, with limited evidence for panic disorder.
Choice C reason: Dialectical behavioral therapy is effective primarily for borderline personality disorder and emotion regulation, not first-line for panic disorder.
Choice D reason: Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is the gold standard for panic disorder, targeting maladaptive thought patterns and avoidance behaviors, and is strongly supported by evidence.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Discontinuing an antidepressant after only two weeks with minimal improvement is premature; SSRIs often require 4–6 weeks for full efficacy.
Choice B reason: Making no changes is appropriate at this stage, as early treatment response is modest. The clinician should continue monitoring and reassess after sufficient treatment duration.
Choice C reason: Adding an augmenting agent is not indicated yet, given the patient has only had two weeks of therapy and lacks significant side effects.
Choice D reason: Switching antidepressants is premature at this early stage of treatment; efficacy assessment requires adequate duration.
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