There are four clients in active labor in the labor suite.Which of the clients should the nurse monitor carefully for a potential uterine rupture?
Age 15, G3 P0020, in active labor.
Age 22, G1 P0000, eclampsia.
Age 25, G4 P3003, last delivery by cesarean section.
Age 32, G2 P0100, first baby died during labor.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
A 15-year-old, G3 P0020, although young, doesn't have an increased risk of uterine rupture related to prior surgical deliveries or other known factors.
Choice B rationale
A 22-year-old, G1 P0000 with eclampsia requires close monitoring for complications related to eclampsia but not specifically for uterine rupture.
Choice C rationale
A 25-year-old, G4 P3003 with a previous cesarean section is at increased risk for uterine rupture due to the scar from the prior surgery which could weaken under the stress of labor.
Choice D rationale
A 32-year-old, G2 P0100's history of a prior fetal demise does not specifically increase the risk of uterine rupture unless accompanied by other risk factors. .
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Postpartum psychosis is a serious mental health condition that can result in delusions and hallucinations. These symptoms increase the risk of harm to the infant, so it's essential that the mother is not left alone with the baby to ensure both their safety.
Choice B rationale
Symptoms of postpartum psychosis typically last longer than one week and require medical intervention, contrary to what is stated in this choice. Treatment usually involves antipsychotics, mood stabilizers, and sometimes hospitalization.
Choice C rationale
Clinical response to medications can be significant in many cases, and early and aggressive treatment often leads to improvement. This statement is inaccurate and does not reflect the current understanding of postpartum psychosis treatment.
Choice D rationale
While monitoring vital signs is essential, it is not as critical as ensuring the infant's safety given the mother’s severe mental condition. The focus should be on psychiatric management and safety protocols rather than routine vitals alone.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Vaginal hematomas are usually associated with severe pain due to the accumulation of blood in the tissues.
Choice B rationale
Bleeding might be visible, but hematomas often cause internal accumulation, not external bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Warmth is not typically associated with hematomas; instead, pain and swelling are more common.
Choice D rationale
Redness may occur, but pain is the most consistent symptom.
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