A postpartum client has been diagnosed with postpartum psychosis.
Which of the following is essential to be included in the family teaching for this client?
The client should never be left alone with her infant.
Symptoms rarely last more than one week.
Clinical response to medications is usually poor.
The client must have her vitals assessed every two days.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Postpartum psychosis poses significant risks to both the mother and her infant. The mother may have impaired judgment, hallucinations, or delusions, making it unsafe for her to be left alone with her baby.
Choice B rationale
Symptoms of postpartum psychosis can persist for several weeks to months without appropriate treatment. Immediate and ongoing intervention is crucial to manage the condition.
Choice C rationale
Clinical response to medications for postpartum psychosis can vary, but with proper treatment, many clients show significant improvement. It is not accurate to state that the response is usually poor.
Choice D rationale
While monitoring vitals may be part of overall care, it is not the most critical teaching point. Ensuring the mother is never left alone with her infant is essential to prevent potential harm.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Contraction duration less than 40 seconds doesn't define tachysystole. Tachysystole focuses on frequency, not duration, of contractions over a specific time frame.
Choice B rationale
Contraction frequency of more than 5 in 10 minutes defines tachysystole. This frequency indicates excessive uterine activity, requiring intervention to prevent fetal distress.
Choice C rationale
Contraction intensity less than 80 mm Hg does not define tachysystole. Intensity relates to contraction strength, but tachysystole is about frequency exceeding the normal range.
Choice D rationale
Resting tone less than 18 mm Hg isn't part of tachysystole's definition. Tachysystole pertains to contraction frequency, not resting tone, which measures uterine relaxation between contractions.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While massaging the fundus and ensuring IV access are correct initial actions, methylergonovine (Methergine) is typically used for patients without hypertensive history due to its potential to raise blood pressure.
Choice B rationale
This option correctly identifies initial steps and appropriate medication. Carboprost-tromethamine (Hemabate) is effective in controlling postpartum hemorrhage and can be safely used in patients with hypertension when oxytocin is insufficient.
Choice C rationale
Quantifying blood loss is essential but it is not an immediate priority when the patient is showing signs of significant bleeding and instability. Immediate intervention to control bleeding takes precedence.
Choice D rationale
Assisting the patient to the restroom and then massaging the fundus overlooks the immediate need to control bleeding. This approach may delay necessary treatment and increase the risk of further hemorrhage.
Choice E rationale
Straight catheterization and oxytocin maintenance are part of the management of postpartum hemorrhage but do not address the immediate need to ensure uterine contraction and control active bleeding as effectively as the initial steps outlined in Choice B. .
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