What is a primary advantage of second-generation antipsychotics over first-generation antipsychotics?
Lower risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Reduced risk of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
Prevention of all anticholinergic effects
Greater efficacy in treating psychotic disorders
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Second-generation antipsychotics (SGAs) have a lower affinity for dopamine D2 receptors in the nigrostriatal pathway compared to first-generation antipsychotics. This transient binding or serotonin-dopamine antagonism significantly reduces the incidence of extrapyramidal symptoms such as pseudoparkinsonism, akathisia, and dystonia, which are common with high-potency typical agents.
Choice B reason: While SGAs may have a slightly lower profile for inducing neuroleptic malignant syndrome, the risk is not eliminated. NMS remains a rare but potentially fatal idiosyncratic reaction to any dopamine-depleting medication. Therefore, reduced risk of NMS is not considered the primary clinical advantage distinguishing these two classes.
Choice C reason: Many second-generation antipsychotics, such as clozapine and olanzapine, possess significant antagonistic activity at muscarinic receptors. This leads to substantial anticholinergic side effects, including xerostomia, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation. They do not prevent these effects; in some cases, they exacerbate them more than first-generation drugs.
Choice D reason: Broadly speaking, SGAs are not necessarily "more effective" at treating positive psychotic symptoms like hallucinations or delusions than first-generation agents. Their main advantage lies in their superior side-effect profile regarding motor control and their potential, albeit sometimes limited, efficacy in addressing the negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Free-floating anxiety is characterized by a pervasive, chronic sense of unease or dread that is not attached to any specific object, event, or situational trigger. It is a hallmark feature of generalized anxiety disorder, where the individual experiences persistent apprehension without a clearly identifiable or discrete external stimulus.
Choice B reason: Signal anxiety refers to a learned response to an anticipated event or a specific identifiable stimulus that the individual perceives as threatening. In clinical psychopathology, this serves as an ego defense mechanism, alerting the person to internal or external danger, such as the specific triggers encountered in phobic disorders.
Choice C reason: Somatic symptom disorder involves an intense focus on physical symptoms, such as pain or fatigue, which causes significant emotional distress and functional impairment. While anxiety may be present, the primary clinical feature is the manifestation of physical complaints that are disproportionate to any underlying medical pathology or etiology.
Choice D reason: Malingering is the intentional production of false or grossly exaggerated physical or psychological symptoms, motivated by external incentives such as avoiding work, obtaining financial compensation, or procuring drugs. It is not an anxiety disorder but rather a deliberate behavior aimed at achieving a specific, tangible secondary gain.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Anticholinergic effects, including xerostomia, blurred vision, and urinary retention, are common side effects of first-generation antipsychotics due to muscarinic receptor blockade. While uncomfortable and requiring management, they are generally not as acutely debilitating or socially stigmatizing as the severe motor dysfunctions associated with dopamine blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway.
Choice B reason: Orthostatic hypotension occurs due to alpha-1 adrenergic blockade, leading to dizziness and a risk of falls, especially in the elderly. While a safety concern, it is a predictable side effect that can often be managed with gradual position changes, whereas EPS requires complex differential diagnosis and specific pharmacological reversal.
Choice C reason: Nausea and vomiting are actually less common with first-generation antipsychotics because many of these agents, such as prochlorperazine or haloperidol, possess potent antiemetic properties by blocking dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Therefore, monitoring for gastrointestinal upset is not a clinical priority for this medication class.
Choice D reason: Monitoring for EPS is the priority because these effects can be acute, painful, and potentially irreversible, as seen in tardive dyskinesia. EPS includes acute dystonia, akathisia, and pseudoparkinsonism. Early detection is vital to adjust dosages or administer anticholinergic agents like benztropine to prevent long-term neurological sequelae and maintain patient compliance.
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