When a patient has an anaphylactic reaction to an IV medication, what is the first action the nurse should take?
Administer a breathing treatment.
Stop the medication.
Administer epinephrine.
Call a Rapid Response.
The Correct Answer is B
This question focuses on emergency management of drug-induced anaphylaxis. It requires identifying the most urgent nursing action to stop the delivery of the offending antigen, which is the necessary first step to mitigate the severity of the systemic, life-threatening allergic reaction being experienced.
Choice A rationale
While providing oxygen and breathing support is a critical component of managing anaphylaxis, stopping the source of the allergen takes absolute priority to prevent further progression of the reaction, ensuring that no more of the triggering medication enters the system.
Choice B rationale
In the event of an anaphylactic reaction, stopping the infusion of the suspected medication is the immediate, non-negotiable priority. This action prevents further antigen-antibody interaction, which is the fundamental driver of the systemic release of histamine and inflammatory mediators.
Choice C rationale
Administering epinephrine is the definitive treatment for anaphylaxis and is given immediately after stopping the drug. While vital for reversing symptoms, the nurse must first disconnect the infusion to prevent ongoing exposure while they prepare to administer the life-saving medication.
Choice D rationale
Calling a Rapid Response or code team is a necessary step to bring additional resources to the bedside. However, the nurse must simultaneously stop the infusion, as every second of continued medication administration increases the potential for irreversible cardiovascular or respiratory collapse.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This question focuses on the pharmacological management of opioid withdrawal. It requires identifying the use of long-acting opioid agonists, which provide a controlled, stable effect on the nervous system, helping to suppress withdrawal symptoms and reduce cravings while minimizing the potential for intoxication.
Choice A rationale
Disulfiram is a medication used to treat alcohol use disorder. It works by causing severe adverse reactions if the patient consumes alcohol. It has no pharmacological role in managing opioid withdrawal symptoms and would be entirely ineffective for this purpose.
Choice B rationale
Betalol is not a recognized medication used for managing opioid withdrawal. Medications for withdrawal are selected for their ability to interact with opioid receptors or mitigate the autonomic nervous system hyper-arousal that occurs during the process of opioid cessation in patients.
Choice C rationale
Methadone is a long-acting synthetic opioid agonist used to manage opioid withdrawal and dependence. It binds to the same receptors as heroin or morphine but has a slower onset and longer duration, helping to prevent withdrawal while reducing illicit drug cravings.
Choice D rationale
Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety or muscle spasms. While it may sometimes be used to manage some withdrawal symptoms, methadone is the specific pharmacological intervention used for opioid withdrawal because it directly targets the underlying neurochemical dependence on opioids.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This question addresses the safe administration of inhaled medications. It requires applying the principle of bronchodilation to optimize the airway for the subsequent delivery of anti-inflammatory steroids, which ensures maximum drug deposition and efficacy in treating obstructive pulmonary conditions like asthma or COPD.
Choice A rationale
Waiting 2 hours between inhaler doses is not required. The goal of sequential inhalation is to provide immediate, sequential therapeutic effects. Increasing the wait time to 2 hours is clinically unnecessary and reduces the overall efficiency of the patient's medication regimen.
Choice B rationale
Taking the corticosteroid first would be ineffective because the anti-inflammatory medication needs to reach deep into the airways. Without the prior use of a bronchodilator to open the airways, the corticosteroid may be deposited primarily in the oropharynx.
Choice C rationale
Taking the bronchodilator first opens the airways by relaxing the smooth muscles of the bronchioles. This increases the total surface area and airway diameter, allowing the subsequently administered corticosteroid to reach the distal lung tissues for maximum therapeutic anti-inflammatory effect.
Choice D rationale
The order of administration is critical for efficacy. If the corticosteroid is taken without the bronchodilator, the medication delivery is significantly less effective due to the smaller airway diameter, resulting in poor drug penetration and decreased relief for the patient..
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