When asked to assess an area of broken skin on an older adult client in a long-term care facility, the nurse notes a break in the skin with erythema and a small amount of serosanguineous drainage over the sacrum. The area appears blister-like. The nurse would interpret this finding as indicating which stage of pressure ulcer?
Stage IV
Stage III
Stage I
Stage II
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is d) Stage II.
Choice a reason:
Stage IV pressure ulcers are the most severe, with full-thickness skin loss and exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. Signs of stage IV include large-scale tissue loss, possibly including slough or eschar, and may include undermining and tunneling. The scenario described does not indicate such an advanced stage, as there is no mention of exposed deeper tissues or structures.
Choice b reason:
Stage III pressure ulcers involve full-thickness skin loss, potentially affecting subcutaneous tissue but not extending to underlying muscle or bone. The wound may have a crater-like appearance. The described condition does not match stage III, as there is no indication of the ulcer extending into subcutaneous tissue.
Choice c reason:
Stage I pressure ulcers present with intact skin and non-blanchable redness of a localized area usually over a bony prominence. The skin may be painful, firm, soft, warmer, or cooler compared to adjacent tissue. In the given scenario, the skin is not intact, ruling out stage I.
Choice d reason:
Stage II pressure ulcers are characterized by partial-thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough. They may also present as intact or ruptured blisters. The description of the skin condition with erythema, serosanguineous drainage, and a blister-like appearance aligns with a stage II pressure ulcer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice a reason:
Obtaining and checking the needed equipment is essential before conducting a physical examination. This ensures that all necessary tools are functional and readily available, which facilitates a smooth and efficient assessment process. It also minimizes interruptions that could cause discomfort or anxiety for the client.
Choice b reason:
While turning on relaxing music of the client's choice may create a calming environment, it is not a standard procedure before a physical examination. Music preferences are subjective, and what is relaxing for one person may be distracting for another. Additionally, music could interfere with the ability to hear heart, lung, or bowel sounds during auscultation.
Choice c reason:
Identifying ways to ensure client privacy is a fundamental nursing responsibility. It respects the client's dignity and promotes a sense of safety and comfort. Privacy can be ensured by closing curtains, securing the area, and making sure the examination is conducted in a private setting.
Choice d reason:
Washing hands is a critical step before any physical examination. It is a primary measure for infection control, protecting both the nurse and the client from potential transmission of microorganisms.
Choice e reason:
Dimming the lighting to promote comfort is not typically recommended before a physical examination. Adequate lighting is crucial for the inspection phase of the examination, allowing the nurse to observe the client's general appearance, skin color, and other physical characteristics accurately.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice a reason:
Educational Prevention is not a recognized level of prevention in healthcare. While education is a key component in all levels of prevention, it is not a standalone category. Education is typically included in primary prevention as it involves informing the public about health practices to prevent the onset of disease.
Choice b reason:
Tertiary Prevention is the level of prevention that aims to manage and treat an existing disease to prevent further complications or deterioration. In the case of immobile stroke patients, tertiary prevention would involve measures to prevent skin breakdown and other complications associated with immobility and the stroke's long-term effects.
Choice c reason:
Secondary Prevention involves early detection and prompt intervention to prevent the progression of a disease. For stroke patients, secondary prevention might include monitoring for signs of skin breakdown so that early treatment can be initiated. However, the scenario described focuses on managing an existing condition rather than early detection.
Choice d reason:
Primary Prevention aims to prevent the disease or injury before it occurs. This would involve strategies to prevent strokes in the first place, such as controlling high blood pressure or encouraging healthy lifestyle changes. It does not directly relate to the prevention of skin breakdown in patients who have already had a stroke.
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