When the nurse administers tramadol orally to a client for pain, which teaching point is most important to tell the client?
It is important for the client to increase fluid intake.
It may take 1 hour for pain to be effectively relieved.
The client should maintain an upright position for 30 minutes after receiving the medication.
The client should not have consumed foods or liquids with calcium for 1 hour before taking the medication.
The Correct Answer is B
A. It is important for the client to increase fluid intake: While hydration is generally beneficial, it is not the most critical teaching point specific to tramadol administration. Tramadol does not typically cause significant urinary crystallization or acute dehydration. Other safety and onset parameters take precedence during initial patient education.
B. It may take 1 hour for pain to be effectively relieved: Tramadol is a centrally acting analgesic that requires systemic absorption and metabolic activation to exert its effects. Clients often expect immediate relief and may attempt to take extra doses if uninformed. Setting expectations for a 60-minute onset prevents accidental overmedication and manages anxiety.
C. The client should maintain an upright position for 30 minutes after receiving the medication: This instruction is typically reserved for bisphosphonates or medications that cause significant esophageal irritation. Tramadol does not carry a high risk for pill-induced esophagitis. Postural requirements are not a standard part of tramadol discharge or administration instructions.
D. The client should not have consumed foods or liquids with calcium for 1 hour before taking the medication: Calcium interference is a concern for certain antibiotics like tetracyclines or fluoroquinolones. Tramadol absorption is not significantly inhibited by calcium-rich foods or dairy products. This dietary restriction is unnecessary for the effective use of this analgesic medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hematocrit 46 %: This value falls within the normal physiological range for both adult males and females. Acetaminophen does not typically affect red blood cell volume or hemoglobin concentration. This lab result indicates normal oxygen-carrying capacity and hydration status rather than drug-induced toxicity or pathology.
B. Hemoglobin 14.6 g/dL: This result is well within the standard reference range and indicates no evidence of anemia or polycythemia. Chronic acetaminophen use is not associated with hematological suppression or gastrointestinal bleeding that would lower hemoglobin levels. It reflects a stable hematological profile for the client.
C. Elevated liver enzymes: Acetaminophen is primarily metabolized in the liver, where a small portion is converted into the toxic metabolite NAPQI. Chronic use or high doses can deplete glutathione stores, leading to hepatocyte necrosis. Elevated ALT and AST levels are the primary indicators of this drug-induced hepatic injury.
D. Elevated BUN and creatinine: These markers indicate renal function and are more typically associated with the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like ibuprofen. While massive acetaminophen overdose can cause secondary renal failure, chronic therapeutic use specifically targets the liver. Hepatic enzymes are the specific monitoring priority.
Correct Answer is ["10"]
Explanation
Prescription: ciprofloxacin 375 mg IV
Available: 37.5 mg per mL
375mg /37.5mg×1ml=10ml
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