Which intervention is essential when performing dressing changes on a client with a diabetic foot ulcer?
Cleaning the wound with a povidone-iodine solution
Using sterile technique during the dressing change
Debriding the wound three times per day
Applying a heating pad
The Correct Answer is B
Diabetic foot ulcers are highly susceptible to secondary infections due to impaired local immunity and reduced tissue perfusion. Maintaining the integrity of the wound bed requires strict adherence to aseptic protocols to prevent the introduction of multidrug-resistant organisms. Infection in these wounds frequently leads to osteomyelitis and is the primary precursor to lower-limb amputation in diabetic populations.
A. Cleaning the wound with a povidone-iodine solution: While povidone-iodine is an antiseptic, it can be cytotoxic to healthy granulation tissue and fibroblasts in chronic wounds. Repeated use may delay the healing process by damaging the very cells needed for tissue repair. Modern wound care emphasizes using non-toxic cleansers, such as normal saline or commercial wound washes.
B. Using sterile technique during the dressing change: Sterile technique is essential for prevents the introduction of pathogens into a compromised, poorly vascularized area. Given the patient's impaired wound healing and increased susceptibility to sepsis, minimizing bacterial load is the primary clinical goal. This intervention protects the patient from ascending infections and promotes a cleaner healing environment.
C. Debriding the wound three times per day: While debridement is necessary to remove necrotic tissue and biofilm, performing it three times daily is excessive and damaging. Frequent aggressive debridement can destroy newly formed capillary loops and epithelial cells. Debridement frequency is typically determined by the amount of eschar or slough and is usually performed much less frequently.
D. Applying a heating pad: Diabetic patients with peripheral neuropathy often have impaired thermal sensation, making them unable to detect extreme heat. Applying a heating pad carries a high risk of causing severe thermal burns without the patient's knowledge. Furthermore, excessive heat can increase the metabolic demand of the tissue beyond what the compromised microcirculation can provide.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Neutral Protamine Hagedorn (NPH) is a suspension of insulin complexed with zinc and protamine, which delays its absorption from the subcutaneous site. This pharmacological modification categorizes it as an intermediate-acting hormone, bridging the gap between rapid mealtime coverage and long-acting basal analogs. It is identifiable by its characteristically cloudy appearance, necessitating gentle agitation before administration to ensure uniform concentration.
A. Long-acting: Long-acting insulins, such as glargine or detemir, provide a steady, "peakless" concentration for up to 24 hours. NPH has a significantly shorter duration, typically lasting between 12 to 18 hours. It is used to provide basal coverage but usually requires twice-daily dosing to maintain therapeutic levels throughout the day.
B. Short-acting: Regular insulin is the primary example of a short-acting agent, typically peaking within 2 to 3 hours of injection. NPH is designed to have a much more prolonged peak, usually occurring 4 to 12 hours after administration. Short-acting insulins are clear solutions, unlike the protamine-stabilized cloudy suspension of NPH.
C. Rapid-acting: Agents like aspart, glulisine, and lispro have an extremely fast onset, often within 15 minutes. NPH does not begin to exert its clinical effect until approximately 1.5 to 4 hours post-injection. Rapid-acting insulins are used to mimic the first-phase insulin response to a meal, which NPH cannot achieve.
D. Intermediate-acting: This classification accurately reflects the pharmacokinetic profile of NPH, which serves as a clinical midpoint in insulin therapy. Its delayed absorption kinetics make it suitable for providing background insulin during the day and overnight. It is often combined with shorter-acting insulins to provide a comprehensive glycemic management regimen.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Oral antidiabetic agents, such as sulfonylureas or meglitinides, lower blood glucose by stimulating pancreatic secretion or improving insulin sensitivity. The most critical adverse effect is a rapid decline in plasma glucose levels below 70 mg/dL. Severe episodes can lead to neuroglycopenia, manifested by confusion, seizures, or loss of consciousness if not promptly treated.
A. Polyuria: Excessive urination is a hallmark of hyperglycemia, where osmotic diuresis occurs as the kidneys excrete excess glucose. While common in undiagnosed or poorly managed diabetes, it is not a direct side effect of glucose-lowering medications. Monitoring for this symptom helps identify therapeutic failure rather than acute drug-induced complications.
B. Blurred vision: Visual disturbances often occur due to osmotic shifts in the lens during periods of fluctuating or very high blood sugar. This symptom is generally associated with the initial presentation of diabetes or chronic lack of glycemic control. It is less likely to be a primary indicator of an acute adverse reaction to oral medications.
C. Polydipsia: Excessive thirst is the body’s compensatory mechanism to counter the fluid loss caused by osmotic diuresis in hyperglycemic states. Like polyuria, it indicates that the oral agent may not be sufficiently controlling the client's blood glucose levels. It serves as a clinical marker for the need to increase or adjust the medication dosage.
D. Hypoglycemia: Pharmacological stimulation of insulin release can cause blood sugar to drop to dangerously low levels, especially if meals are skipped. The nurse must monitor for autonomic symptoms like diaphoresis, tachycardia, and tremors. This represents the most immediate and life-threatening risk associated with specific classes of oral antidiabetic therapy.
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