Which medication is given as a first-line treatment for dysmenorrhea?
Antidepressants
Insulin
Antibiotics
NSAIDS
The Correct Answer is D
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) inhibit the enzyme cyclooxygenase, which is responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandins. Primary dysmenorrhea is caused by an excess of prostaglandin F2-alpha, which triggers intense uterine contractions and ischemia. Reducing these levels effectively alleviates menstrual cramping and associated systemic symptoms.
A. Antidepressants: While SSRIs are used for the emotional symptoms of premenstrual dysphoric disorder, they are not the first-line treatment for the physical pain of dysmenorrhea. They do not inhibit the uterine prostaglandins that cause the primary cramping. They address neurological rather than myometrial targets.
B. Insulin: Insulin is used to manage diabetes mellitus and has no clinical role in the treatment of menstrual pain. It does not affect uterine contractility or prostaglandin levels. Administering it to a non-diabetic client would cause life-threatening hypoglycemia.
C. Antibiotics: These agents treat infections like pelvic inflammatory disease, which can cause secondary dysmenorrhea. However, they are not used for the symptomatic relief of standard menstrual cramps. Antibiotics do not have analgesic or anti-inflammatory properties for non-infectious pelvic pain.
D. NSAIDS: Drugs like ibuprofen and naproxen are the gold standard for treating dysmenorrhea because they target the biochemical cause of the pain. By lowering prostaglandin concentrations in the menstrual fluid, they reduce uterine hypercontractility. This provides significant relief for most patients.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe complication characterized by intractable vomiting leading to fluid-electrolyte imbalance, ketonuria, and weight loss exceeding 5% of pre-pregnancy mass. The pathophysiology involves high serum hCG levels and potential hyperthyroidism. Patients exhibit signs of intravascular dehydration and metabolic alkalosis.
A. Iron deficiency: While anemia is common in pregnancy, it typically presents with fatigue and pallor rather than acute, persistent emesis and significant weight loss. Iron supplements can actually exacerbate gastric irritation and nausea. It is not the primary cause of the severe hemodynamic instability described here.
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum: The combination of 6-pound weight loss, persistent inability to retain nutrients, and orthostatic dizziness indicates a pathological state beyond normal morning sickness. This condition requires aggressive intravenous rehydration and electrolyte replacement. Dark urine and dizziness are clinical hallmarks of severe volume depletion.
C. Gastroenteritis: An acute infection of the digestive tract usually presents with diarrhea, fever, and abdominal cramping alongside vomiting. While it causes temporary dehydration, the 10-week gestational timing and lack of lower gastrointestinal symptoms point toward a pregnancy-induced etiology. It is typically a self-limiting viral or bacterial event.
D. Normal morning sickness: Physiological nausea of pregnancy usually peaks in the morning and does not result in significant weight loss or clinical dehydration. Clients can typically maintain some oral intake and do not experience dizziness upon standing. It lacks the severe metabolic consequences seen in hyperemesis.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) encompasses a constellation of physical and affective symptoms occurring during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. The etiology is linked to the cyclic fluctuations of ovarian steroids and their interaction with neurotransmitters like serotonin. Symptoms typically resolve within 4 days of menses onset.
A. PMS: The timing of mood swings and bloating exactly one week before menstruation is pathognomonic for PMS. These symptoms occur after ovulation when progesterone levels are dominant. It affects the quality of life but is managed with lifestyle modifications and SSRIs.
B. Menopause: This is defined as the permanent cessation of menses for 12 consecutive months due to follicular depletion. While it involves mood changes and fatigue, it is characterized by the absence of cycles rather than cyclic symptoms. It typically occurs in older populations.
C. Amenorrhea: This term refers to the absence of menstruation and would not be associated with a predictable, cycle-related onset of symptoms. If a client is experiencing premenstrual bloating, they are by definition not amenorrheic. It is a symptom of absence.
D. Ovulation: This event occurs mid-cycle, approximately 14 days before menses, and may be associated with brief pelvic pain (mittelschmerz). It does not cause a week-long prodrome of emotional lability or significant fluid retention. Ovulation triggers the luteal phase transition.
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