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Which of the following is most indicative of postpartum subinvolution?

Uterine atony.

Prolonged lochia discharge.

Severe cramping.

High fever.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Uterine atony refers to a lack of muscle tone in the uterus, leading to postpartum hemorrhage, not subinvolution.

Choice B rationale

Prolonged lochia discharge indicates incomplete uterine involution, as the uterus has not returned to its pre-pregnancy size.

Choice C rationale

Severe cramping may be related to other postpartum complications and is not specific to subinvolution.

Choice D rationale

High fever is more indicative of an infection rather than subinvolution of the uterus.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Biologically, women are more susceptible to sexually transmitted infections (STIs) due to anatomical differences, such as a larger mucosal surface area, making this statement incorrect.

Choice B rationale

Many STIs, such as chlamydia and gonorrhea, can be asymptomatic. This means a person can have an STI without showing signs or symptoms, making routine screening important.

Choice C rationale

Not all STIs are curable. While bacterial STIs like syphilis and gonorrhea can be treated with antibiotics, viral STIs like herpes and HIV can only be managed, not cured.

Choice D rationale

Condoms significantly reduce the risk of acquiring STIs but do not eliminate it entirely. They protect against fluid transmission but not necessarily from skin-to-skin contact infections like HPV.

A. Severe nausea and vomiting. B. Bradycardia. C. Referred shoulder pain. D. Heavy vaginal bleeding.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Severe nausea and vomiting are not specific symptoms of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy but may occur due to other unrelated conditions.

Choice B rationale

Bradycardia is not characteristic of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy but could indicate other cardiovascular issues or conditions.

Choice C rationale

Referred shoulder pain is a hallmark symptom of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy due to diaphragmatic irritation from internal bleeding, indicating potential rupture.

Choice D rationale

Heavy vaginal bleeding can occur in various conditions but is not as specific to ruptured ectopic pregnancy as referred shoulder pain indicating internal bleeding.

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Which of the following is most indicative of postpartum subinvolution?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient tells the nurse that she knows all about sexually transmitted infections and proceeds to make the following statements. Which one is the only correct statement that the client makes?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Which of the following is most indicative of postpartum subinvolution?