Which of the following is the proper treatment strategy for medication-overuse headache?
Increase the analgesic dose and frequency
Abruptly discontinue offending agent
No treatment is warranted, as the headache is self-limiting
Taper and subsequently eliminate offending agent
The Correct Answer is D
A. Increase the analgesic dose and frequency: Increasing the dose or frequency of the offending medication worsens medication-overuse headache (MOH) by perpetuating the cycle of rebound headaches. Escalation of analgesics is contraindicated.
B. Abruptly discontinue offending agent: While abrupt discontinuation may be necessary in some cases, it often leads to severe withdrawal headaches and other adverse effects. A structured taper is generally safer and better tolerated, especially for opioids, triptans, or combination analgesics.
C. No treatment is warranted, as the headache is self-limiting: MOH will not resolve spontaneously without intervention. Continuing the overused medication maintains the headache cycle, so active management is required.
D. Taper and subsequently eliminate offending agent: Gradually tapering and eliminating the overused analgesic allows the central nervous system to adjust and break the rebound headache cycle. This strategy reduces withdrawal severity and is supported by clinical guidelines as the safest and most effective approach to treat MOH.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Patient is 12 years old: Children aged 12 and older are generally eligible for self-care treatment of mild headaches using over-the-counter analgesics, so age in this case does not exclude self-care.
B. Patient has had the headache for 1 day: A short-duration headache without alarming features is appropriate for self-treatment. Acute headaches of one day’s duration do not automatically require medical evaluation.
C. Patient drinks occasionally, 1 alcoholic beverage every weekend: Occasional alcohol use does not contraindicate self-care treatment of headaches and does not increase risk for most over-the-counter analgesics if used responsibly.
D. Patient also has a high fever (102.5°F): The presence of a high fever suggests a possible underlying infection or more serious systemic illness. This is an exclusion for self-care, as it warrants medical evaluation to rule out conditions such as meningitis, influenza, or other infections.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Trouble staying asleep: There is no specific information in the case indicating that the client has difficulty maintaining sleep throughout the night. While insomnia can present this way, it has not been reported here.
B. Trouble falling asleep: The case does not indicate that the client experiences prolonged sleep latency or difficulty initiating sleep. Her main concern is daytime fatigue and ongoing naps, rather than bedtime struggles.
C. Early awakenings: The client has not reported waking earlier than desired or being unable to return to sleep, so early awakening is not documented as a symptom in this scenario.
D. None of the above: The case describes excessive daytime sleepiness and frequent napping but does not provide evidence of classical insomnia symptoms such as difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, or early morning awakening. Therefore, none of the listed options accurately represent her reported symptoms.
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