Which of the following statements is true of metaphase I of meiosis I?
Joined homologous pair uniformly line up on the equatorial spindle with chromosome one at the top and chromosome 23 on the bottom.
Tetrads align randomly on the spindle equator with all the maternal homologs on one side and all the paternal homologs on the opposite side.
Homologous pairs align randomly on the spindle equator with a mix of paternal and maternal homologs destined for each of the daughter cells.
The sister chromatids line up randomly on the spindle equator with some maternal and paternal chromatids on both sides of the equator.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Joined homologous pair uniformly line up on the equatorial spindle with chromosome one at the top and chromosome 23 on the bottom: Chromosomes do not arrange themselves in numerical order during any phase of meiosis. The spatial arrangement of the 23 pairs is random and does not follow a specific linear hierarchy. This description suggests a level of organization that does not exist within the spindle apparatus.
B. Tetrads align randomly on the spindle equator with all the maternal homologs on one side and all the paternal homologs on the opposite side: If all maternal chromosomes stayed together, genetic variation would be significantly limited. Homologs do not segregate as entire parental sets; instead, each pair behaves as an independent unit. This choice describes a scenario that would violate the principle of independent assortment.
C. Homologous pairs align randomly on the spindle equator with a mix of paternal and maternal homologs destined for each of the daughter cells: The orientation of each tetrad relative to the poles is purely a matter of chance. This independent assortment allows for over 8 million possible combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes in the resulting gametes. This randomness ensures that siblings from the same parents are genetically distinct.
D. The sister chromatids line up randomly on the spindle equator with some maternal and paternal chromatids on both sides of the equator: This description is more characteristic of metaphase 2 or mitosis, where individual chromosomes align. In metaphase 1, it is the tetrads or homologous pairs that align together. The distinction between pairs and individual chromatids is the key difference between the two meiotic stages.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. 4; 1: During spermatogenesis, a single primary spermatocyte undergoes two meiotic divisions to produce four functional, haploid spermatozoa. In contrast, oogenesis involves asymmetrical cytokinesis, where one primary oocyte yields only one functional secondary oocyte and three non-functional polar bodies. This allows the single ovum to retain the cytoplasm necessary for early embryonic life.
B. 4; 2: Oogenesis does not result in two functional ova under normal physiological conditions. While two polar bodies may be visible at different stages, only one cell matures into the gamete capable of being fertilized. Producing two functional eggs would be the result of a double ovulation event rather than the standard meiotic process.
C. 2:4: This ratio is the reverse of biological reality. Males produce significantly more gametes per meiotic event than females to ensure a higher probability of fertilization. Females prioritize the quality and nutrient content of a single cell over the quantity of gametes produced. This ensures the zygote has an adequate supply of organelles.
D. 4; 4: If oogenesis produced four functional ova, human multiple births would be the standard rather than the exception. The energy cost of producing four nutrient-rich eggs is too high for the female reproductive strategy. Asymmetrical division is a specific evolutionary adaptation to ensure the survival of a single fertilized zygote.
E. 1; 4: This choice suggests males produce fewer gametes than females per meiotic cycle, which is incorrect. A single spermatogonium eventually leads to the production of four spermatids through the process of meiosis. Oogenesis is the pathway that results in a single functional gamete due to the formation of polar bodies.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. podocytes: These are highly specialized epithelial cells that constitute the visceral layer of the glomerular capsule. They possess long cytoplasmic extensions called pedicels that interdigitate to form filtration slits around the glomerular capillaries. They are essential for maintaining the structural integrity and selectivity of the renal filtration barrier.
B. mesangial cells: These contractile cells are located between the capillary loops of the glomerulus and provide structural support. They also regulate the surface area available for filtration by contracting or relaxing in response to various stimuli. They do not form a continuous inner layer wrapping the capillaries like the podocytes.
C. monocytes: These are a type of agranular leukocyte found in the circulating blood that can differentiate into macrophages. They are part of the immune system and are not a structural component of the renal corpuscle or the glomerular capsule. Their presence within the filtration membrane would be considered pathological.
D. nephrocytes: This is a general term sometimes used to describe various cells of the kidney, but it is not the specific anatomical name for the visceral epithelial cells. In human renal anatomy, the term podocyte is the specific medical jargon used to identify the cells forming the filtration slits.
E. macula densa cells: These are specialized chemoreceptor cells found in the wall of the distal convoluted tubule where it contacts the afferent arteriole. They monitor sodium chloride concentration in the filtrate as part of the juxtaglomerular apparatus. They are located outside the renal corpuscle's internal filtration surface.
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