Which of the following vaccines is safe during pregnancy?
Intranasal influenza
Tetanus, Diphtheria and Pertussis
Measles/Mumps/Rubella
Varicella
The Correct Answer is B
Vaccination during pregnancy is guided by safety for both the mother and the developing fetus, as well as the ability to provide passive immunity to the newborn. Inactivated vaccines are generally safe in pregnancy, while live attenuated vaccines are contraindicated due to potential risk of fetal infection. Certain vaccines are specifically recommended during pregnancy to protect against serious maternal and neonatal infections. Understanding which vaccines are safe is essential for prenatal preventive care.
Rationale:
A. Intranasal influenza vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is generally contraindicated during pregnancy due to theoretical risks to the fetus. Although influenza vaccination is recommended in pregnancy, it must be administered in the inactivated injectable form rather than the intranasal version. The live formulation poses safety concerns and is avoided in pregnant patients.
B. Tetanus, Diphtheria and Pertussis (Tdap) vaccine is safe and recommended during pregnancy, typically administered during each pregnancy regardless of prior immunization history. It helps protect the newborn from pertussis (whooping cough) through passive antibody transfer. This maternal immunization significantly reduces the risk of severe neonatal respiratory infection in early life.
C. Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential risk of fetal infection. It is recommended to be given before conception or postpartum if immunity is lacking. Administration during pregnancy is avoided to prevent theoretical teratogenic effects.
D. Varicella vaccine is also a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy. Exposure to the vaccine strain poses a potential risk to the fetus, so it should be administered prior to pregnancy or after delivery if needed. Pregnant patients who are non-immune are instead managed with post-exposure prophylaxis if exposed to the virus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The Apgar scoring system is a standardized method used to rapidly assess the newborn’s physiological condition immediately after birth. It evaluates five criteria: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and skin color. This assessment helps determine how well the newborn tolerated the birthing process and whether urgent resuscitative interventions are needed. It is performed at specific time intervals to monitor adaptation to extrauterine life.
Rationale:
A. Apgar score is correctly performed at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth to evaluate the newborn’s immediate adaptation to extrauterine life. The 1-minute score reflects how well the infant tolerated the birthing process, while the 5-minute score assesses ongoing adjustment and response to any interventions. In some cases, additional scoring at 10 minutes may be done if the infant’s condition remains compromised.
B. Performing the Apgar score at 5 and 10 minutes is incorrect because the initial assessment must occur at 1 minute of life. The 10-minute score is only added if the newborn has low scores and requires ongoing evaluation. This option omits the critical first-minute assessment that provides baseline adaptation status.
C. Assessing the Apgar score every 15 minutes during the first hour of life is not standard practice. The Apgar score is not used for continuous monitoring but rather for specific time-point assessments. Ongoing newborn monitoring is performed using vital signs and clinical observation instead.
D. Performing the Apgar score immediately after birth and upon arrival in the nursery is incorrect because timing must follow standardized intervals of 1 and 5 minutes. The score is intended to be applied in the delivery room to assess immediate post-birth adaptation. Nursery admission assessments are separate from Apgar scoring and involve different newborn evaluations.
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Accurate dermatologic documentation requires describing primary lesion morphology (flat vs raised), color changes, and distribution. Papules are small, raised, solid lesions, while erythema describes redness caused by increased blood flow in superficial capillaries. Correct identification of lesion type helps narrow differential diagnoses such as allergic reactions, inflammatory dermatoses, or infectious processes. In this image, multiple small raised red lesions are scattered over the extensor surface of the arm.
Rationale:
A. Plaques are elevated, flat-topped lesions that are typically larger than 1 cm in diameter and often formed by confluence of papules. The lesions shown are discrete, small, and not coalescing into broad raised areas. Therefore, plaque formation is not the correct descriptor for this rash.
B. Papular describes small, raised, solid lesions that are less than 1 cm in size. The image shows multiple discrete elevated bumps consistent with papules distributed over the skin surface. This morphology is typical of inflammatory or hypersensitivity reactions affecting the skin.
C. Erythematous refers to redness of the skin due to increased capillary blood flow, often associated with inflammation. The lesions and surrounding skin demonstrate a red appearance consistent with an inflammatory process. This descriptor appropriately captures the color change seen in the rash.
D. Macular lesions are flat, non-palpable areas of color change that are not elevated or depressed compared to surrounding skin. The lesions in the image are clearly raised, which excludes a macular description. Therefore, macular is not an appropriate descriptor in this case.
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