Which prescribed intervention should the emergency department nurse implement first for a patient who is experiencing continuous tonic-clonic seizures?
Monitor level of consciousness (LOC)
Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 4 mg IV.
Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan.
Give phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg IV.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Monitor level of consciousness (LOC): While monitoring the patient's level of consciousness is important, administering medication to stop the seizure takes precedence to prevent potential complications associated with prolonged seizure activity.
B. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 4 mg IV: The priority in managing continuous tonic-clonic seizures is to terminate the seizure activity promptly. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that can help to abort seizures and is often used as first-line treatment in the acute setting.
C. Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan: While obtaining diagnostic imaging such as a CT scan may be necessary to evaluate for underlying causes of the seizure, it is not the first
intervention in the acute management of continuous seizures. Stabilizing the patient and stopping the seizure activity take precedence.
D. Give phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg IV: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication that is used for long-term management of seizures but is not typically administered as first-line treatment during an acute seizure episode. Benzodiazepines like lorazepam are preferred for immediate seizure control.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Restlessness: Restlessness is a common early sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in clients with traumatic brain injury. It can result from discomfort, confusion, or agitation due to pressure on the brain.
B. Amnesia: Amnesia, or memory loss, can occur with traumatic brain injury but is not specifically indicative of increased intracranial pressure.
C. Tachycardia: Tachycardia may occur in response to various factors such as pain, stress, or fever, but it is not a specific indicator of increased intracranial pressure.
D. Hypotension: Hypotension (low blood pressure) is not typically associated with increased intracranial pressure. In fact, hypertension (high blood pressure) may be a compensatory response to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure in the setting of elevated ICP.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administer an oral analgesic: Administering analgesics may provide relief from pain, but it does not address the underlying cause of the headache and stiff neck. Assessing the client's neurological status is the priority to determine the severity and potential cause of the symptoms.
B. Perform a complete blood count: While laboratory tests may be necessary to further evaluate the client, they are not the first action to take when the client presents with symptoms suggestive of a neurological emergency such as meningitis. Assessing the client's neurological status and ruling out serious conditions take precedence.
C. Evaluate the client's neurological status: Assessing the client's neurological status, including level of consciousness, motor and sensory function, and signs of meningeal irritation (such as neck stiffness), is crucial for identifying potential neurological emergencies such as meningitis and guiding further management.
D. Check the client's temperature: While obtaining vital signs, including temperature, is important in the assessment of a client with suspected meningitis, it is not the first action to take. Assessing the client's neurological status and initiating appropriate interventions based on the findings are the priority.
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