Which prescribed intervention should the emergency department nurse implement first for a patient who is experiencing continuous tonic-clonic seizures?

Monitor level of consciousness (LOC)

Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 4 mg IV.

Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan.

Give phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg IV.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Monitor level of consciousness (LOC): While monitoring the patient's level of consciousness is important, administering medication to stop the seizure takes precedence to prevent potential complications associated with prolonged seizure activity.

B. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 4 mg IV: The priority in managing continuous tonic-clonic seizures is to terminate the seizure activity promptly. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that can help to abort seizures and is often used as first-line treatment in the acute setting.

C. Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan: While obtaining diagnostic imaging such as a CT scan may be necessary to evaluate for underlying causes of the seizure, it is not the first
intervention in the acute management of continuous seizures. Stabilizing the patient and stopping the seizure activity take precedence.

D. Give phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg IV: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication that is used for long-term management of seizures but is not typically administered as first-line treatment during an acute seizure episode. Benzodiazepines like lorazepam are preferred for immediate seizure control.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. The client can follow simple motor commands: A GCS score of 5 for the best motor response indicates that the client can localize pain but cannot follow simple motor commands. A score of 6 or higher is required to demonstrate following commands.

B. The client is unable to make vocal sound: A GCS score of 5 for the best verbal response indicates incomprehensible sounds or no verbal response. It does not specifically indicate the client's ability to vocalize or make sounds.

C. The client opens his eyes when spoken to: A GCS score of 3 for eye opening indicates no eye opening even to painful stimuli. It does not suggest that the client opens his eyes when spoken to.

D. The client is unconscious: A GCS score of 3 for eye opening, 5 for best verbal response, and 5 for best motor response indicates severe neurological impairment, with the client being unresponsive to stimuli and unable to follow commands. Therefore, the appropriate conclusion is that the client is unconscious.

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

The potential condition the client is most likely experiencing is a Hemorrhagic Stroke.

Prepare the client for a STAT CT brain: The client presents with sudden onset of severe headache described as the worst of their life, along with additional neurological symptoms such as left-sided weakness, aphasia, photophobia, and loss of peripheral vision. These symptoms are highly concerning for a possible hemorrhagic stroke, which requires urgent imaging such as a CT scan of the brain to confirm the diagnosis and guide immediate treatment.
Place the client on seizure precautions: The client has reported left-sided weakness and aphasia, indicating neurological deficits. Additionally, they have a history of atrialfibrillation and are on anticoagulant therapy with warfarin, resulting in an elevated INR of4.9. This INR level suggests a significantly increased risk of bleeding, including intracranial bleeding. Given these factors, the client is at risk of experiencing seizures, which is a potential complication of hemorrhagic stroke. Placing the client on seizure precautionsinvolves ensuring their safety and preventing injury in the event of a seizure.

Parameters to Monitor:

Temperature: Monitoring temperature is important to assess for the presence of fever, which could indicate an infectious process such as meningitis. However, in this case, theclient's fever is likely related to their urinary tract infection rather than directly related to the stroke. Nonetheless, monitoring temperature is still essential for overall assessment and management.
PT/INR: Monitoring the PT/INR is crucial due to the client's history of atrial fibrillation and anticoagulant therapy with warfarin. The elevated INR of 4.9 suggests that the client is at increased risk of bleeding, including intracranial bleeding. Close monitoring of PT/INR levels will help guide adjustments to anticoagulant therapy and assess the risk of further bleeding complications.

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Which prescribed intervention should the emergency department nurse implement first for a patient who is experiencing continuous tonic-clonic seizures?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is receiving a transfer report for a client who has a head injury. The client has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 3 for eye opening, 5 for best verbal response, and 5 for best motor response. Which of the following is an appropriate conclusion based on this data?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

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