Which prescribed intervention should the emergency department nurse implement first for a patient who is experiencing continuous tonic-clonic seizures?

Monitor level of consciousness (LOC)

Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 4 mg IV.

Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan.

Give phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg IV.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Monitor level of consciousness (LOC): While monitoring the patient's level of consciousness is important, administering medication to stop the seizure takes precedence to prevent potential complications associated with prolonged seizure activity.

B. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 4 mg IV: The priority in managing continuous tonic-clonic seizures is to terminate the seizure activity promptly. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that can help to abort seizures and is often used as first-line treatment in the acute setting.

C. Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan: While obtaining diagnostic imaging such as a CT scan may be necessary to evaluate for underlying causes of the seizure, it is not the first
intervention in the acute management of continuous seizures. Stabilizing the patient and stopping the seizure activity take precedence.

D. Give phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg IV: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication that is used for long-term management of seizures but is not typically administered as first-line treatment during an acute seizure episode. Benzodiazepines like lorazepam are preferred for immediate seizure control.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. The client can follow simple motor commands: A GCS score of 5 for the best motor response indicates that the client can localize pain but cannot follow simple motor commands. A score of 6 or higher is required to demonstrate following commands.

B. The client is unable to make vocal sound: A GCS score of 5 for the best verbal response indicates incomprehensible sounds or no verbal response. It does not specifically indicate the client's ability to vocalize or make sounds.

C. The client opens his eyes when spoken to: A GCS score of 3 for eye opening indicates no eye opening even to painful stimuli. It does not suggest that the client opens his eyes when spoken to.

D. The client is unconscious: A GCS score of 3 for eye opening, 5 for best verbal response, and 5 for best motor response indicates severe neurological impairment, with the client being unresponsive to stimuli and unable to follow commands. Therefore, the appropriate conclusion is that the client is unconscious.

A. Therapeutic effects of medications may not be seen for 2-3 weeks B. Physical dependency may result from extended use of medications C. Urine may turn pink to brown but is not harmful D. Take medication even if there is no seizure activity

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Therapeutic effects of medications may not be seen for 2-3 weeks: While it is important for the client to understand the timeline for therapeutic effects, ensuring medication adherence, especially during the initial period when therapeutic effects are not yet apparent, is of higher priority.
B. Physical dependency may result from extended use of medications: While the potential for physical dependency is an important consideration, ensuring medication compliance and adherence to the prescribed regimen, particularly in the context of managing seizures, takes precedence.
C. Urine may turn pink to brown but is not harmful: While this information may be included in the education plan to address potential side effects of antiepileptic medications, it is not the highest priority compared to ensuring the client understands the importance of taking medication regularly.
D. Take medication even if there is no seizure activity: Ensuring consistent medication adherence is crucial in managing seizure disorders to maintain therapeutic blood levels of antiepileptic medications and reduce the risk of breakthrough seizures. Missing doses can increase the risk of seizure recurrence.

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