Which prescribed intervention should the emergency department nurse implement first for a patient who is experiencing continuous tonic-clonic seizures?
Monitor level of consciousness (LOC)
Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 4 mg IV.
Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan.
Give phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg IV.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Monitor level of consciousness (LOC): While monitoring the patient's level of consciousness is important, administering medication to stop the seizure takes precedence to prevent potential complications associated with prolonged seizure activity.
B. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 4 mg IV: The priority in managing continuous tonic-clonic seizures is to terminate the seizure activity promptly. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that can help to abort seizures and is often used as first-line treatment in the acute setting.
C. Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan: While obtaining diagnostic imaging such as a CT scan may be necessary to evaluate for underlying causes of the seizure, it is not the first
intervention in the acute management of continuous seizures. Stabilizing the patient and stopping the seizure activity take precedence.
D. Give phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg IV: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication that is used for long-term management of seizures but is not typically administered as first-line treatment during an acute seizure episode. Benzodiazepines like lorazepam are preferred for immediate seizure control.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Remove clothing: While removing clothing may be necessary for a thorough assessment and treatment, maintaining cervical spine precaution takes precedence to prevent potential spinal cord injury in clients with a history of trauma, such as a fall from a significant height.
B. Maintain cervical spine precaution: Maintaining cervical spine precaution by stabilizing the cervical spine and immobilizing the neck is crucial to prevent further injury to the spinal cord in clients with a history of trauma until spinal injury is ruled out or managed.
C. Perform a mental status exam: While assessing the client's mental status is important for evaluating neurological function, it is not the first priority in a client with potential spinal cord injury following a fall.
D. Assess for facial lacerations: Assessing for facial lacerations is important for identifying and managing potential facial injuries, but it is not the first priority in the primary assessment of a client with a history of trauma and potential spinal cord injury.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The patient's blood pressure (BP) is 144/90 mm Hg: While elevated blood pressure may contribute to the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage, the patient's current BP is not excessively high and may not be the most critical factor in this situation compared to other factors such as anticoagulant use.
B. The patient takes a diuretic because of a history of hypertension: While the patient's history of hypertension and diuretic use are relevant to their overall health status, they may not be the most immediate concern in the context of intracerebral hemorrhage.
C. The patient has atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin (Coumadin): This information is crucial as it indicates that the patient is anticoagulated, which can significantly impact the severity and management of intracerebral hemorrhage. Anticoagulant use increases the risk of bleeding and can worsen outcomes in cases of intracranial hemorrhage.
D. The patient's speech is difficult to understand: While difficulty with speech may indicate neurological impairment, it is not as immediately concerning as the patient's anticoagulant use, which increases the risk of bleeding complications and may require specific interventions such as reversal agents.
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