A nurse is caring for a client who reports a throbbing headache and hypotension after a lumbar puncture. Which of the following actions is most likely to facilitate resolution of the headache?
Administer naproxen.
Elevate the head of the bed to 30°.
Check BP and call for a blood patch.
Darken the client's room and close the door.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Administer naproxen: While pain management is important, naproxen may not effectively resolve the headache associated with post-lumbar puncture headache (PLPH), which is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30°: While elevating the head of the bed may provide some relief, it is not typically sufficient to resolve PLPH, which often requires more definitive interventions.
C. Check BP and call for a blood patch: PLPH is commonly treated with a blood patch, which involves injecting the patient's own blood into the epidural space to seal the puncture site and restore normal cerebrospinal fluid pressure. Checking blood pressure is important to assess for hypotension, and calling for a blood patch is the most appropriate action to address the underlying cause of the headache.
D. Darken the client's room and close the door: While creating a quiet and dim environment may help alleviate symptoms of headache, it does not address the underlying cause of PLPH and is not the most appropriate intervention in this situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Monitor level of consciousness (LOC): While monitoring the patient's level of consciousness is important, administering medication to stop the seizure takes precedence to prevent potential complications associated with prolonged seizure activity.
B. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 4 mg IV: The priority in managing continuous tonic-clonic seizures is to terminate the seizure activity promptly. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that can help to abort seizures and is often used as first-line treatment in the acute setting.
C. Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan: While obtaining diagnostic imaging such as a CT scan may be necessary to evaluate for underlying causes of the seizure, it is not the first
intervention in the acute management of continuous seizures. Stabilizing the patient and stopping the seizure activity take precedence.
D. Give phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg IV: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication that is used for long-term management of seizures but is not typically administered as first-line treatment during an acute seizure episode. Benzodiazepines like lorazepam are preferred for immediate seizure control.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. “You might benefit from some psychological counseling." While psychological counseling may be helpful for coping with the emotional impact of epilepsy, it does not directly address the patient's concern about the possibility of having a seizure at work.
B. “The Department of Vocational Rehabilitation can help with work retraining." While
vocational rehabilitation services may be beneficial for individuals with disabilities, it may not directly address the patient's concern about continuing to work as a teacher.
C. "Epilepsy usually can be well controlled with medications." This response addresses the patient's concern by providing reassurance that epilepsy can often be effectively managed with medications. By effectively controlling seizures, the patient may be able to continue working without the fear of having a seizure at work.
D. “You will want to contact the Epilepsy Foundation for assistance." While the Epilepsy Foundation provides valuable resources and support for individuals with epilepsy, this response does not directly address the patient's concern about continuing to work.
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