A nurse is caring for a client who reports a throbbing headache and hypotension after a lumbar puncture. Which of the following actions is most likely to facilitate resolution of the headache?
Administer naproxen.
Elevate the head of the bed to 30°.
Check BP and call for a blood patch.
Darken the client's room and close the door.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Administer naproxen: While pain management is important, naproxen may not effectively resolve the headache associated with post-lumbar puncture headache (PLPH), which is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30°: While elevating the head of the bed may provide some relief, it is not typically sufficient to resolve PLPH, which often requires more definitive interventions.
C. Check BP and call for a blood patch: PLPH is commonly treated with a blood patch, which involves injecting the patient's own blood into the epidural space to seal the puncture site and restore normal cerebrospinal fluid pressure. Checking blood pressure is important to assess for hypotension, and calling for a blood patch is the most appropriate action to address the underlying cause of the headache.
D. Darken the client's room and close the door: While creating a quiet and dim environment may help alleviate symptoms of headache, it does not address the underlying cause of PLPH and is not the most appropriate intervention in this situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Restlessness: Restlessness is a common early sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in clients with traumatic brain injury. It can result from discomfort, confusion, or agitation due to pressure on the brain.
B. Amnesia: Amnesia, or memory loss, can occur with traumatic brain injury but is not specifically indicative of increased intracranial pressure.
C. Tachycardia: Tachycardia may occur in response to various factors such as pain, stress, or fever, but it is not a specific indicator of increased intracranial pressure.
D. Hypotension: Hypotension (low blood pressure) is not typically associated with increased intracranial pressure. In fact, hypertension (high blood pressure) may be a compensatory response to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure in the setting of elevated ICP.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The patient had a recent acute myocardial infarction: Sumatriptan is contraindicated in patients with a history of myocardial infarction or coronary artery disease due to its vasoconstrictive effects, which could exacerbate ischemia or precipitate cardiovascular events.
B. The patient has had migraine headaches for 30 years: While the duration of migraine headaches is relevant to the patient's history, it is not as immediately concerning as a recent myocardial infarction when considering the use of sumatriptan.
C. The patient drinks 1 to 2 cups of coffee daily: While caffeine consumption may interact with sumatriptan and affect its efficacy or side effects, it is not as immediately concerning as a recent myocardial infarction.
D. The patient has taken topiramate (Topamax) for 2 months: While the use of topiramate may interact with sumatriptan, it is not as immediately concerning as a recent myocardial infarction. However, it is still important to report all medications the patient is taking to the healthcare provider.
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