A nurse is caring for a client who reports a throbbing headache and hypotension after a lumbar puncture. Which of the following actions is most likely to facilitate resolution of the headache?
Administer naproxen.
Elevate the head of the bed to 30°.
Check BP and call for a blood patch.
Darken the client's room and close the door.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Administer naproxen: While pain management is important, naproxen may not effectively resolve the headache associated with post-lumbar puncture headache (PLPH), which is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30°: While elevating the head of the bed may provide some relief, it is not typically sufficient to resolve PLPH, which often requires more definitive interventions.
C. Check BP and call for a blood patch: PLPH is commonly treated with a blood patch, which involves injecting the patient's own blood into the epidural space to seal the puncture site and restore normal cerebrospinal fluid pressure. Checking blood pressure is important to assess for hypotension, and calling for a blood patch is the most appropriate action to address the underlying cause of the headache.
D. Darken the client's room and close the door: While creating a quiet and dim environment may help alleviate symptoms of headache, it does not address the underlying cause of PLPH and is not the most appropriate intervention in this situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The patient had a recent acute myocardial infarction: Sumatriptan is contraindicated in patients with a history of myocardial infarction or coronary artery disease due to its vasoconstrictive effects, which could exacerbate ischemia or precipitate cardiovascular events.
B. The patient has had migraine headaches for 30 years: While the duration of migraine headaches is relevant to the patient's history, it is not as immediately concerning as a recent myocardial infarction when considering the use of sumatriptan.
C. The patient drinks 1 to 2 cups of coffee daily: While caffeine consumption may interact with sumatriptan and affect its efficacy or side effects, it is not as immediately concerning as a recent myocardial infarction.
D. The patient has taken topiramate (Topamax) for 2 months: While the use of topiramate may interact with sumatriptan, it is not as immediately concerning as a recent myocardial infarction. However, it is still important to report all medications the patient is taking to the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The patient has dysphasia: Dysphasia (difficulty with speech) is a common symptom of stroke but does not contraindicate the use of aspirin for acute ischemic stroke management. Aspirin is routinely administered in the acute phase of ischemic stroke to prevent further clot formation.
B. The patient has atrial fibrillation: Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of embolic strokes, and aspirin may be used for stroke prevention in certain cases. However, the presence of atrial fibrillation alone does not indicate a contraindication to aspirin administration in the acute setting of a suspected stroke.
C. The patient has a history of brief episodes of right-sided hemiplegia: A history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or brief episodes of hemiplegia suggests a risk factor for stroke but does not necessarily contraindicate the use of aspirin in the acute phase of stroke
management. Aspirin is commonly used for secondary prevention after TIAs or minor strokes.
D. The patient reports that symptoms began with a severe headache: Severe headache as the initial symptom of stroke raises concerns about a possible hemorrhagic stroke rather than an ischemic stroke. Administration of aspirin in the setting of a hemorrhagic stroke can worsen bleeding and increase morbidity and mortality. Therefore, the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving aspirin to determine the appropriate course of action based on the patient's presentation and diagnostic evaluation.
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