You previously cared for a 38-year-old woman who has a history of seizures after a traumatic emergency cesarean section. Today, you are working in the neurology clinic, and the patient comes in for a routine follow-up appointment. The patient says that because she has not had a seizure since she was in the hospital, she questions how long she will have to continue taking the phenytoin. Which is your best response?
This medication can be stopped after you are seizure-free for a 6-month period.
Only take the medication when you are under stress because that's when you are most likely to have a seizure.
This medication might need to be continued for the rest of your life.
Your seizures are cured only as long as you take the medication.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Stopping seizure medication such as phenytoin without medical advice can lead to life-threatening seizures. It is not recommended to stop after a set period of being seizure-free without consulting a healthcare provider.
Choice B reason: Phenytoin should not be taken only during periods of stress; it is intended to be used consistently to maintain therapeutic levels in the body.
Choice C reason: Phenytoin may need to be continued indefinitely, depending on the individual's condition and the doctor's recommendation. It is often used as a long-term treatment for seizure control.
Choice D reason: This statement is misleading; while phenytoin helps control seizures, it does not cure the underlying condition causing them.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: While a stable ECG rhythm is important, it is not the immediate concern post-AMI.
Choice B reason: The ability to verbalize causes and effects of CHD/CAD is an educational goal, not an immediate care priority.
Choice C reason: Adequate relief of pain is a priority to reduce stress on the heart and improve patient comfort.
Choice D reason: Compliance with prescribed bedrest is important but secondary to pain relief.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A negative urine dipstick for nitrites is more indicative of a lack of bacterial infection and is not directly related to glomerulonephritis.
Choice B reason: While the absence of pain or burning with voiding is positive, it does not specifically indicate the resolution of glomerulonephritis.
Choice C reason: The resolution of periorbital and peripheral edema is a sign that the treatment for glomerulonephritis has been effective, as edema is a common symptom of this condition.
Choice D reason: A decrease in the anti-streptolysin-O (ASO) titer may indicate a response to treatment for a streptococcal infection, but it is not the most direct indicator of effective treatment for glomerulonephritis.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.