
HESI Biology Practice Test
The HESI Biology practice test is an important resource that helps aspiring nurses prepare for their actual HESI Biology test. The practice test allows the test takers to be familiar with the test format and the question types they will encounter. It also helps them identify the areas they will have to improve. When you use the Naxlex HESI Biology practice test, candidates will be in a better position to understand the type of biology questions they will tackle during their exams. It will also help make them more comfortable with their abilities.
There are different types of HESI biology practice test questions. There are subject-specific and full-length practice tests. The full-length biology practice test questions are more comprehensive and offer a realistic simulation of the actual HESI Biology test. However, all these question types have their benefits and will help you prepare well for the exams . You should set aside a specific study time to ensure proper use of the HESI Biology practice test kit. They should strive to answer as many questions as possible.
When you are through with answering the HESI Biology practice test questions, you can review the answers and point out areas where you might have made mistakes. With this, you can point out places where you should put more emphasis on your studies. Test takers preparing for their HESI Biology test must take the HESI Biology practice test under similar conditions. They will take the actual exam and use the same time and quiet environment as they will in the Test. Online quizzes and flashcards offer a great way to practice Biology concepts and help improve your knowledge of biology. The online quizzes will allow test takers to practice particular Biology topics in different formats. The flashcards will help ensure the proper practice of other Biology concepts quickly and easily.
How Many Questions Are on HESI Biology Test?
The biology subtest comprises 30 multiple-choice questions. Five questions are always used for evaluation in future tests and never count towards or against the score. It is difficult for exam takers to identify the scored and the non-scored questions. Four possible answers always follow every question. You have to choose the right answer to receive question credits. Every question will always have one correct answer.You will have to answer all the questions within 25 minutes.
You will have approximately 50 seconds to spend on every question. It means you must pay attention to how much time you spend on every question. When a question seems quite complex, consider making the best guess and proceed to the next question. You can always return to your unsure questions and try redoing them.
What is on HESI Biology Exam?
The HESI Biology exam tests your general knowledge of biology. Some of the topics you will encounter include
Biology Basics
They will test your understanding of gradualism, scientific methods, kingdom classification systems, natural selection, and evolution.
Water
Questions about water will ask you to demonstrate your knowledge of different water properties like adhesion, heat, solvency, and cohesion
Biologic Molecules
Some questions will test your understanding of reactions such as catabolic and anabolic, the four basic building blocks, and the four basic macromolecules.
Metabolism
These questions will prompt you to demonstrate your understanding of metabolism.
The Cell
Here, you will be asked to demonstrate your knowledge of the structure and function of cells. Specific understanding of chromosomes, nuclei, nuclear pores, cytoplasm, ribosomes, cell membranes, and related concepts.
Cellular Respiration
The common topics you will be tested on are metabolic reactions within the cell, oxidation, Krebs cycle, glycolysis, respiration, and chemiosmosis. You will also be tested on genetics, DNA, cellular reproduction, and photosynthesis.
Questions on HESI Biology Practice Test
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The ureters are long, narrow tubes that transport urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. Each kidney has one ureter, which emerges from the renal pelvis (a funnel-shaped cavity in the kidney) and descends downward, passing behind the peritoneum and along the back of the abdominal cavity. The ureters then enter the bladder through small openings at the base of the bladder, where they join with the urethra, a tube that carries urine out of the body.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The anatomical position is a standardized reference position used to describe the human body. In this position, the person stands erect with their feet together and their arms at their sides, with the palms of the hands facing forward (anteriorly). This position is used as a reference for describing the location of different parts of the body.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The urinary bladder and internal reproductive organs, including the uterus, ovaries, and testes, are in the pelvic cavity. The pelvic cavity is a bony structure formed by the pelvis and contains the terminal portions of the digestive tract, urinary tract, and reproductive tract. It is situated inferior to the abdominal cavity and is separated from it by the pelvic brim, which is a rim of bone formed by the iliac crests, sacrum, and pubic bones. The pelvic cavity is bounded by the pelvic bones and the pelvic diaphragm and is lined with pelvic peritoneum.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Hematoma formation occurs immediately after the bone is fractured. The blood vessels that have been damaged due to the fracture bleed and form a hematoma or a blood clot.
Next, callus formation begins, which involves the accumulation of fibrous tissue, cartilage, and new bone cells around the fracture site, forming a soft callus.
The soft callus then undergoes callus ossification, in which the fibrous tissue and cartilage are gradually replaced by hardened new bone tissue.
Finally, bone remodeling occurs, which involves the reshaping of the newly formed bone tissue to match the shape of the original bone, and the removal of any excess bone material.
Therefore, option b, hematoma formation, Callus formation, Callus ossification, Bone remodeling, is the correct sequence of repair as a fractured bone goes through the healing process.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The ABCD rule is a mnemonic used to identify the characteristics of melanoma, which is a type of skin cancer. The leters stand for:
A -Asymmetry: One half of the mole or lesion does not match the other half.
B - Border irregularity: The edges are ragged, notched, or blurred.
C - Color: The color is not uniform and may include different shades of brown or black, or sometimes patches of pink, red, white, or blue.
D - Diameter: The size of the mole or lesion is greater than 6 mm (about the size of a pencil eraser), although melanomas can sometimes be smaller.
This rule is not as useful in detecting other types of skin cancer, such as squamous cell carcinoma, basal cell carcinoma, or sarcoma, as they tend to have different characteristics. However, any new or changing mole or lesion on the skin should be examined by a dermatologist to determine if it is cancerous.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Also known as platelets, are cell fragments in the blood that play a crucial role in blood clotting or coagulation. When a blood vessel is injured, thrombocytes are activated and clump together to form a platelet plug that stops the bleeding. They also release substances that promote blood clotting and help to repair the damaged blood vessel. Therefore, the function of thrombocytes is important in preventing excessive bleeding and promoting wound healing. Options a, c, and d are incorrect because they do not describe the function of thrombocytes.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
When the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, it activates the "fight or flight" response, which prepares the body for physical activity or stressful situations. This response includes several physiological changes, such as:
Increased heart rate and cardiac output: The sympathetic nervous system releases adrenaline and noradrenaline, which increase heart rate and cardiac output to provide more oxygen and nutrients to the muscles.
Decreased uterine activity: The sympathetic nervous system inhibits uterine contractions to prevent
premature labor.
Decreased pancreatic activity: The sympathetic nervous system inhibits insulin secretion and promotes glucagon secretion to increase blood glucose levels.
Decreased gastrointestinal activity: The sympathetic nervous system inhibits digestive functions to divert blood flow to the muscles.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Cells of similar structure and function are grouped together to form a tissue. Tissues can be found in many different types of organisms, including animals and plants. There are four main types of tissues in animals: epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscle tissue, and nervous tissue. Each type of tissue has a specific function and is composed of specialized cells that work together to perform that function.
An organ is a structure made up of two or more tissues that work together to perform a specific function. A system is a group of organs that work together to perform a specific function. A membrane is a thin layer of tissue that covers a surface or divides a space or organ.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Dermal papillae are small, raised structures in the dermis of the skin. They contain nerve endings, capillaries, and other specialized cells. Dermal papillae are responsible for creating fingerprints, as they push up into the epidermis and create ridges on the surface of the skin. These ridges are what give each person their unique patern of fingerprints. Sudoriferous glands are responsible for producing sweat, Merkel cells are involved in touch sensation, and arrector pili are responsible for the contraction of hair follicles
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Ceruminous glands are specialized sweat glands located in the skin of the ear canal. These glands secrete a waxy substance called cerumen or ear wax. Ear wax helps to lubricate and protect the skin of the ear canal and prevent the entry of foreign particles, such as dust and insects, into the ear. It also has antibacterial properties that help to protect the ear from infection. The amount and composition of ear wax vary from person to person and can be affected by factors such as age, genetics, and environmental conditions.