The HESI A2 Biology test covers basic biology topics that include metabolism, molecules, genetics photosynthesis, and DNA. This article will look at the important things you need to know, such as how many questions you must answer, the test design, and the HESI Biology practice test that will help you prepare.

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hesi biology practice test

HESI Biology Practice Test

The HESI Biology practice test is an important resource that helps aspiring nurses prepare for their actual HESI Biology test. The practice test allows the test takers to be familiar with the test format and the question types they will encounter. It also helps them identify the areas they will have to improve. When you use the Naxlex HESI Biology practice test, candidates will be in a better position to understand the type of biology questions they will tackle during their exams. It will also help make them more comfortable with their abilities.

There are different types of HESI biology practice test questions. There are subject-specific and full-length practice tests. The full-length biology practice test questions are more comprehensive and offer a realistic simulation of the actual HESI Biology test. However, all these question types have their benefits and will help you prepare well for the exams . You should set aside a specific study time to ensure proper use of the HESI Biology practice test kit. They should strive to answer as many questions as possible.

When you are through with answering the HESI Biology practice test questions, you can review the answers and point out areas where you might have made mistakes. With this, you can point out places where you should put more emphasis on your studies.  Test takers preparing for their HESI Biology test must take the HESI Biology practice test under similar conditions. They will take the actual exam and use the same time and quiet environment as they will in the Test. Online quizzes and flashcards offer a great way to practice Biology concepts and help improve your knowledge of biology. The online quizzes will allow test takers to practice particular Biology topics in different formats. The flashcards will help ensure the proper practice of other Biology concepts quickly and easily.

How Many Questions Are on HESI Biology Test?

The biology subtest comprises 30 multiple-choice questions. Five questions are always used for evaluation in future tests and never count towards or against the score. It is difficult for exam takers to identify the scored and the non-scored questions. Four possible answers always follow every question. You have to choose the right answer to receive question credits. Every question will always have one correct answer.You will have to answer all the questions within 25 minutes.

You will have approximately 50 seconds to spend on every question. It means you must pay attention to how much time you spend on every question. When a question seems quite complex, consider making the best guess and proceed to the next question. You can always return to your unsure questions and try redoing them.

What is on HESI Biology Exam?

The HESI Biology exam tests your general knowledge of biology. Some of the topics you will encounter include

Biology Basics

They will test your understanding of gradualism, scientific methods, kingdom classification systems, natural selection, and evolution.

Water

Questions about water will ask you to demonstrate your knowledge of different water properties like adhesion, heat, solvency, and cohesion

Biologic Molecules

Some questions will test your understanding of reactions such as catabolic and anabolic, the four basic building blocks, and the four basic macromolecules.

Metabolism

These questions will prompt you to demonstrate your understanding of metabolism.

The Cell

Here, you will be asked to demonstrate your knowledge of the structure and function of cells. Specific understanding of chromosomes, nuclei, nuclear pores, cytoplasm, ribosomes, cell membranes, and related concepts.

Cellular Respiration

The common topics you will be tested on are metabolic reactions within the cell, oxidation, Krebs cycle, glycolysis, respiration, and chemiosmosis. You will also be tested on genetics, DNA, cellular reproduction, and photosynthesis.

Questions on HESI Biology Practice Test

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The bones that articulate with the carpals are the distal end of the radius and the distal end of the ulna. These two bones form the wrist joint with the carpals. Therefore, if you break the distal end of both the ulna and radius, it will result in a wrist fracture. This type of injury is also known as a distal radius and ulna fracture.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

When the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, it activates the "fight or flight" response, which prepares the body for physical activity or stressful situations. This response includes several physiological changes, such as:

Increased heart rate and cardiac output: The sympathetic nervous system releases adrenaline and noradrenaline, which increase heart rate and cardiac output to provide more oxygen and nutrients to the muscles.

Decreased uterine activity: The sympathetic nervous system inhibits uterine contractions to prevent

premature labor.

Decreased pancreatic activity: The sympathetic nervous system inhibits insulin secretion and promotes glucagon secretion to increase blood glucose levels.

Decreased gastrointestinal activity: The sympathetic nervous system inhibits digestive functions to divert blood flow to the muscles.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The quadriceps femoris group is a group of four muscles located in the anterior compartment of the thigh. These muscles are responsible for extending the leg at the knee joint. The four muscles that make up the quadriceps femoris group are the rectus femoris, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius, and vastus lateralis.

The vastus lateralis is the largest of the four muscles and is located on the lateral side of the thigh. It originates from the greater trochanter of the femur, the lateral lip of the linea aspera, and the lateral intermuscular septum. It inserts into the patella and the tibial tuberosity via the patellar tendon. The vastus lateralis is responsible for extending the leg at the knee joint and is also involved in stabilizing the patella.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Intramembranous ossification is a process of bone formation in which bone tissue forms directly within mesenchymal (undifferentiated) connective tissue membranes. This process is responsible for the formation of the flat bones of the skull, including the frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal bones.

Long bones of the arms and legs, bones of the pelvic girdle, and vertebrae are formed by endochondral ossification, a different process of bone formation in which bone tissue replaces hyaline cartilage.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Ceruminous glands are specialized sweat glands located in the skin of the ear canal. These glands secrete a waxy substance called cerumen or ear wax. Ear wax helps to lubricate and protect the skin of the ear canal and prevent the entry of foreign particles, such as dust and insects, into the ear. It also has antibacterial properties that help to protect the ear from infection. The amount and composition of ear wax vary from person to person and can be affected by factors such as age, genetics, and environmental conditions.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The left ventricle of the heart normally has the thickest wall, which is composed mainly of cardiac muscle tissue (myocardium). The left ventricle has to generate enough force to pump oxygen-rich blood to the rest of the body through systemic circulation, which requires greater muscular effort than the right ventricle, which pumps blood only to the lungs via pulmonary circulation. The thickness of the left ventricular wall ensures that it can withstand the pressure required to generate this forceful contraction.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Lysosomes contribute to phagocytosis in white blood cells by fusing with the phagosome, which is the membrane-bound vesicle that engulfs the foreign particle or pathogen during phagocytosis. The lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes that can break down the engulfed material, thereby helping to destroy the invading pathogen. Additionally, lysosomes can also release reactive oxygen species and other antimicrobial molecules that further aid in the destruction of the pathogen.

Vacuoles, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus do not directly contribute to phagocytosis in white blood cells. Vacuoles are used for storage in cells, while the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus are involved in protein synthesis and processing.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The ABCD rule is a mnemonic used to identify the characteristics of melanoma, which is a type of skin cancer. The leters stand for:

A -Asymmetry: One half of the mole or lesion does not match the other half.

B - Border irregularity: The edges are ragged, notched, or blurred.

C - Color: The color is not uniform and may include different shades of brown or black, or sometimes patches of pink, red, white, or blue.

D - Diameter: The size of the mole or lesion is greater than 6 mm (about the size of a pencil eraser), although melanomas can sometimes be smaller.

This rule is not as useful in detecting other types of skin cancer, such as squamous cell carcinoma, basal cell carcinoma, or sarcoma, as they tend to have different characteristics. However, any new or changing mole or lesion on the skin should be examined by a dermatologist to determine if it is cancerous.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The popliteal artery is located behind the knee and is one of the major arteries that supplies blood to the leg and foot. Palpating the pulse in this artery can be done by pressing firmly on the area behind the knee, just below the crease. It is important to note that palpating the pulse in this area can be more difficult than other pulse points, as the artery is deep and surrounded by other structures such as muscle and bone.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The malleus, incus, and stapes are three small bones, collectively known as the ossicles, located in the middle ear. These bones work together to transmit sound waves from the eardrum to the inner ear, where they are converted into nerve impulses that are then sent to the brain. The malleus is attached to the eardrum, the incus is in between the malleus and the stapes, and the stapes is connected to the inner ear. Together, they form a chain that amplifies the sound waves and transmits them efficiently to the inner ear.

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