A 16-year-old male diagnosed with genital warts presents for chemical ablation with podophyllin (Podofin) 25% topical solution. The lesions appear on the glans and scrotum. When applying the solution to the affected areas, the nurse practitioner should NOT:
apply acetic acid to the external genitalia 3-5 minutes prior to chemical ablation.
apply petroleum jelly 3-5 mm away from the lesions prior to applying podophyllin (Podofin)
use a cotton-tipped wooden applicator when applying podophyllin (Podofin) directly on the lesions.
dust the lesions with talcum powder once the ablation is complete.
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. Applying acetic acid to the external genitalia before chemical ablation is NOT recommended. Acetic acid is sometimes used for diagnostic purposes (to highlight lesions by turning them white), but it can irritate the skin and increase the risk of chemical injury when combined with podophyllin.
B. Applying petroleum jelly around the lesions is appropriate because it protects surrounding healthy skin from the caustic effects of podophyllin.
C. Using a cotton-tipped wooden applicator is the correct technique to apply podophyllin precisely to the lesions without spreading it to healthy tissue.
D. Dusting the lesions with talcum powder after ablation helps absorb residual medication and reduce local irritation, which is considered standard post-application care.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Changing the antibiotic after only 24 hours is premature; many antibiotics require 48–72 hours to show clinical improvement.
B. Increasing acetaminophen dosage without medical guidance may risk overdose and does not address the underlying infection.
C. Alternating ibuprofen with acetaminophen can help with pain, but it does not replace the need to assess antibiotic effectiveness.
D. Re-evaluating the child after 48–72 hours allows time for the antibiotic to work and ensures appropriate management if symptoms persist.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Hypocalcemia in infants typically presents with tremors, jitteriness, positive Chvostek or Trousseau signs, and seizures, rather than a shrill cry.
B. A shrill or high-pitched cry is a classic neurologic sign that may indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP) or central nervous system irritation. Additional signs may include lethargy, irritability, vomiting, and bulging fontanel.
C. Upper airway obstruction usually produces stridor, noisy breathing, or retractions, but not a shrill cry.
D. Vocal cord paralysis may cause a weak, hoarse, or breathy cry, not the high-pitched, shrill cry associated with neurologic issues.
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