A 32-week pregnant client presents to the emergency department with vaginal bleeding. The client reports slight vaginal bleeding at 29 weeks, which resolved spontaneously, and now has a recent onset of bright red vaginal bleeding. There are no uterine contractions, the fetal heart rate is within normal range, and the uterus is soft and non-tender. Based on the assessment findings, which condition would the nurse likely suspect?
Preterm labor
Placenta previa
Placental abruption
Vasa previa
The Correct Answer is B
A. Preterm labor: Preterm labor typically presents with regular uterine contractions, cervical changes, and possibly mild bleeding. This client has no contractions or uterine activity, making preterm labor less likely in this scenario.
B. Placenta previa: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester. The absence of contractions and a soft, non-tender uterus are consistent with this condition. The history of bleeding at 29 weeks further supports this suspicion.
C. Placental abruption: Placental abruption usually presents with painful vaginal bleeding, a firm or tender uterus, and sometimes fetal distress. The lack of uterine tenderness or contractions makes abruption less likely in this case.
D. Vasa previa: Vasa previa involves fetal blood vessels crossing the cervical os and is typically associated with membrane rupture and rapid fetal deterioration. The fetal heart rate is normal, and there’s no mention of ruptured membranes, which makes this diagnosis unlikely.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. 1+ pitting sacral edema: Mild pitting edema is a common clinical feature of preeclampsia, especially in the lower extremities or sacral area due to fluid retention. This finding aligns with expected symptoms and is not inconsistent with the diagnosis.
B. 3+ protein in the urine: Significant proteinuria (≥300 mg/24 hr or ≥1+ on dipstick) is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia. A 3+ result reflects marked protein loss and supports the diagnosis, not contradicts it.
C. Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg: A systolic pressure ≥140 mm Hg or diastolic ≥90 mm Hg on two readings at least 4 hours apart confirms hypertension in pregnancy. This value fits the diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia.
D. Deep tendon reflexes of +1: Clients with preeclampsia often exhibit hyperreflexia (+3 or +4) due to CNS irritability. A reflex score of +1 is diminished and inconsistent with the expected heightened neuromuscular activity seen in preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The client requires a rubella vaccination at this time: Rubella is a live attenuated virus vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy. Administering it during gestation poses a risk of congenital rubella syndrome. The client must wait until after delivery for vaccination. Therefore, immunization now is inappropriate and unsafe.
B. The client requires a rubella immunization following delivery: A negative rubella titer indicates that the client is not immune to rubella and is at risk for infection. Rubella infection during pregnancy can cause serious fetal anomalies. The vaccine should be administered postpartum before discharge. This ensures immunity for future pregnancies.
C. The client is immune to the rubella virus: Immunity is confirmed by a positive rubella titer, not a negative one. A negative result shows susceptibility and lack of protective antibodies. Therefore, this interpretation is incorrect. The client is not immune and needs vaccination after delivery.
D. The client is not experiencing a rubella infection at this time: While a negative titer may imply no current infection, it primarily reflects a lack of immunity. It does not provide diagnostic information about active or recent infection. The main concern here is the absence of antibodies. Thus, this choice misinterprets the titer result.
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