A nurse is educating a newly pregnant client about the stages of pregnancy. The client asks, "Which weeks are included in the first trimester?" The nurse correctly responds with which of the following?
Weeks 25-36
Weeks 1-12
Weeks 13-24
Weeks 37-40
The Correct Answer is B
A. Weeks 25–36: This range falls within the third trimester of pregnancy. It includes the period of continued fetal growth and development, not the early developmental stages that define the first trimester.
B. Weeks 1–12: The first trimester spans from conception through the 12th week of gestation. This period includes critical fetal organ development, hormonal shifts, and early pregnancy symptoms such as nausea and fatigue.
C. Weeks 13–24: These weeks represent the second trimester, which is often marked by decreased early symptoms and increased fetal movement. It follows the completion of the first trimester at week 12.
D. Weeks 37–40: This time frame represents the late third trimester, also referred to as term pregnancy. It involves preparation for labor and delivery, not early fetal development.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. G3 T0 P2 A1 L1: This option incorrectly states that the client has had two preterm births, which she has not. She has had one full-term birth and one abortion, making the parity count inaccurate in this case.
B. G2 T1 P0 A0 L2: This count underrepresents the client’s total pregnancies (G2 instead of G3) and indicates no abortions, which contradicts the elective abortion at 9 weeks. It also incorrectly lists two living children instead of one.
C. G2 T1 P0 A1 L2: While it correctly lists the term birth and abortion, it inaccurately lists two living children and indicates the client has had only two pregnancies instead of three, making the gravida count incorrect.
D. G3 T1 P0 A1 L1: The client has had three pregnancies (G3), one term birth (T1), no preterm births (P0), one abortion (A1), and one living child (L1). This option accurately reflects her obstetric history using the GTPAL system.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The client requires a rubella vaccination at this time: Rubella is a live attenuated virus vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy. Administering it during gestation poses a risk of congenital rubella syndrome. The client must wait until after delivery for vaccination. Therefore, immunization now is inappropriate and unsafe.
B. The client requires a rubella immunization following delivery: A negative rubella titer indicates that the client is not immune to rubella and is at risk for infection. Rubella infection during pregnancy can cause serious fetal anomalies. The vaccine should be administered postpartum before discharge. This ensures immunity for future pregnancies.
C. The client is immune to the rubella virus: Immunity is confirmed by a positive rubella titer, not a negative one. A negative result shows susceptibility and lack of protective antibodies. Therefore, this interpretation is incorrect. The client is not immune and needs vaccination after delivery.
D. The client is not experiencing a rubella infection at this time: While a negative titer may imply no current infection, it primarily reflects a lack of immunity. It does not provide diagnostic information about active or recent infection. The main concern here is the absence of antibodies. Thus, this choice misinterprets the titer result.
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