A 35-year-old pregnant woman with irregular periods, G4 T2 PO A1 L2 is 28 weeks pregnant by the last ultrasound, when she experiences bright red and painless vaginal bleeding, fetal contour is easily assessed, and uterine tone is normal. On her arrival at the hospital, what would be an expected diagnostic procedure or test to confirm the diagnosis?
Select one:
Vaginal Ultrasound for placental location
Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity
Abdominal Ultrasound for placental location
Contraction stress test (CST)
The Correct Answer is A
a. This would help determine the location of the placenta and whether placenta previa is present, which can cause painless vaginal bleeding.
b. This is not typically done for diagnosis of painless vaginal bleeding.
c. While an abdominal ultrasound can also determine the location of the placenta, a vaginal ultrasound is more accurate for this purpose.
d. This is not typically done for diagnosis of painless vaginal bleeding.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
a. A positive CST indicates late decelerations that persist in more than 50% of the contractions, which is not the case in this scenario.
b. A negative CST indicates the absence of late decelerations, which is not the case in this scenario.
c. A satisfactory CST indicates that there are no late decelerations, and the test is considered normal.
d. Reactive is not a term used to interpret a CST.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
a. An abnormal odor of the amniotic fluid, such as a foul or fishy smell, may indicate infection and is a concern with ruptured membranes and an elevated temperature.
b. This may be necessary if the client has an infection or other complications, but it is not the first action to take.
c. This is not an appropriate action when the client has an elevated temperature and ruptured membranes.
d. Glucocorticoids may be administered to promote fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, but they are not appropriate in this situation.
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