A woman was treated recently for toxic shock syndrome (TSS). She has intercourse occasionally and uses over-the-counter protection. On the basis of her history, what contraceptive method should she and her partner avoid?

Vaginal sponge

Abstinence.

Coitus interruptus

Hormonal contraceptives.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

a.   The vaginal sponge has been associated with an increased risk of toxic shock syndrome (TSS), so it should be avoided in women with a history of TSS.
b.   Abstinence is a highly effective contraceptive method but may not be practical for all couples.
c.   This method is not as effective as other contraceptive methods and may not be practical for all couples.
d.   Hormonal contraceptives are generally safe for women with a history of TSS and are an effective method of contraception.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

a. A scalp electrode is not indicated unless there is a problem with the external monitor tracing or if further assessment of the fetal heart rate variability is needed.
b. This is important but repositioning the patient is the priority.

c. Amnioinfusion is only done if repositioning the patient does not resolve the late decelerations.

d. The nurse is observing late decelerations of the fetal heart rate, which indicate uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal hypoxia. The nurse's first priority is to reposition the patient to improve placental blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Repositioning can be done by turning the patient to her side, elevating her legs, or placing a wedge under her hip.

A. Perform a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels B. Place clean disposable pads to collect any drainage C. Monitor uterine contractions D. Asses fetal heart rate (FHR) and maternal vital signs

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

a. While this is important, it is not the priority when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy.
b. This is important for managing the bleeding but is not the priority.
c. Monitoring uterine contractions is important, but assessing fetal heart rate (FHR) and maternal vital signs is the priority to determine the status of the fetus and mother.
d. Bleeding in late pregnancy can indicate placental abruption, which is a life- threatening condition for both the mother and the fetus. The nurse should monitor the FHR and maternal vital signs to assess the severity of the bleeding and the fetal and maternal well-being.

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A woman was treated recently for toxic shock syndrome (TSS). She has intercourse occasionally and uses over-the-counter protection. On the basis of her history, what contraceptive method should she and her partner avoid?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy ( 37 weeks) is to: Select one:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse admits a woman who is at 38 weeks of gestation and in early labor with ruptured membranes. The nurse determines that the client's oral temperature is 38.9° C (102° F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

A woman who has five pregnancies with a fetus (or fetuses) not reaching the stage of fetal viability beyond 20 weeks is known as: Select one:

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman recognizes that late fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations are caused by: Select one:

A nurse is caring for a client who is to undergo a biophysical profile. The client asks the nurse what is being evaluated during this test. Which of the following should the nurse does not include in the test?

A woman with preeclampsia has a seizure. The nurse's primary duty during the seizure is to: Select one:

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When evaluating a patient for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), the nurse should be aware that the most common bacterial STI is: Select one: