A nurse is caring for a client in the second prenatal visit, the laboratory findings indicate a negative rubella titer. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this data?

The client is immune to the rubella virus.

Administer the first dose of rubella vaccine at this time.

The client is not experiencing a rubella infection at this time

The client requires a rubella immunization in post-partum

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

a.   A negative rubella titer indicates that the client is not immune to rubella.
b.   Rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy.
c.   A negative rubella titer does not indicate whether the client is currently experiencing a rubella infection.
d.   A negative rubella titer means that the client does not have antibodies against the rubella virus, which can cause congenital defects in the fetus if the mother gets infected during pregnancy. Therefore, the client should receive the rubella vaccine after delivery, when it is safe to do so.

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Correct Answer is ["D"]

Explanation

a. This is an important recommendation for overall health but is not specifically related to reducing the risk of NTDs.
b. This is an important recommendation for overall health but is not specifically related to reducing the risk of NTDs.
c. This is an important recommendation for overall health but is not specifically related to reducing the risk of NTDs.
d. Folic acid supplementation before and during pregnancy has been shown to reduce the risk of NTDs in newborns.

A. A 27-year-old G2P1 woman at 37 weeks' gestation who experienced spontaneous rupture of membranes 30 minutes ago but feels normal fetal movements and not contractions are noted. B. A 22-year-old. 9cm 100% +4. Who is requesting to go to the bathroom to have a bowel movement C. A 32-year-old G4P3 woman at 27 weeks' gestation who noted scan vaginal bleeding today, after of having a sexual intercourse in the morning. D. A 17-year-old. 2cm 80% -2. Who is crying and shows mild anxiety

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

a. A woman at 37 weeks' gestation who experienced spontaneous rupture of membranes 30 minutes ago with normal fetal movements is not a priority assessment as long as there are no signs of fetal distress.
b. A woman who is 9 cm dilated and fully effaced and is requesting to go to the bathroom to have a bowel movement is in the second stage of labor, which means that the cervix is fully dilated and the fetus is descending in the birth canal. The urge to have a bowel movement is a sign that the fetal head is pressing on the rectum and that delivery is imminent. This patient needs immediate attention and preparation for delivery.
c. A woman at 27 weeks' gestation who noted scant vaginal bleeding today after having sexual intercourse in the morning may be experiencing placenta previa or placental abruption but this is not a priority compared to the woman in option b who is yet to deliver.
d. A woman who is 2 cm dilated and 80% effaced and is crying and shows mild anxiety is not a priority assessment as long as there are no signs of fetal distress.

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A nurse is caring for a client in the second prenatal visit, the laboratory findings indicate a negative rubella titer. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this data?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is instructing a woman who is contemplating pregnancy about nutritional needs. To reduce the risk of giving birth to a newborn who has neural tube defects (NTD), which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? Select one:

Correct Answer is ["D"]

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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