A 36-year-old woman with stage 2 breast cancer presents to the nurse practitioner with questions about contraception. Which is the safest contraceptive method for a woman with active breast cancer?
Copper IUD
Progesterone-only pill
Combined oral contraceptives
Implant
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: The copper intrauterine device (IUD) is a non-hormonal contraceptive method and is considered the safest option for women with active breast cancer. Since it does not release hormones, it avoids the risk of hormone-sensitive tumor stimulation and provides highly effective long-term contraception.
Choice B reason: Progesterone-only pills contain synthetic progestins, which may pose a risk in hormone-sensitive breast cancers. Although they are sometimes used in select cases, they are generally avoided in women with active breast cancer due to potential hormonal influence on tumor growth.
Choice C reason: Combined oral contraceptives contain both estrogen and progestin, which are contraindicated in women with breast cancer due to their potential to stimulate hormone receptor-positive tumors. This method is not safe for this patient population.
Choice D reason: Hormonal implants release progestin over time and are not recommended for women with active breast cancer. Like other hormonal methods, they may increase the risk of cancer progression in hormone-sensitive cases.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This describes the pathophysiology of macular degeneration, not diabetic retinopathy. Macular degeneration involves the breakdown of photoreceptor cells in the macula, leading to central vision loss, but is not directly caused by diabetes.
Choice B reason: Diabetic retinopathy is caused by chronic hyperglycemia leading to microvascular damage in the retina. This includes capillary leakage, microaneurysms, and neovascularization, which can result in retinal edema, hemorrhage, and ultimately vision loss. It is a leading cause of blindness in adults with diabetes.
Choice C reason: This describes the pathophysiology of cataracts, where lens proteins become denatured and coagulated, leading to opacity. While cataracts are more common in diabetics, this is not the mechanism of diabetic retinopathy.
Choice D reason: This describes the pathophysiology of glaucoma, which involves increased intraocular pressure due to impaired aqueous humor drainage. Although glaucoma can co-occur with diabetes, it is not the primary mechanism of diabetic retinopathy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: CCBs are effective in Black patients with hypertension, especially in monotherapy. They work by relaxing vascular smooth muscle and reducing peripheral resistance, which is beneficial in salt-sensitive hypertension.
Choice B reason: ACE inhibitors are less effective as monotherapy in Black patients due to lower plasma renin activity. They may be used in combination therapy but are not preferred as initial treatment unless there are compelling indications such as heart failure or diabetic nephropathy.
Choice C reason: ARBs have similar limitations to ACE inhibitors in Black populations but may be better tolerated due to lower risk of cough. They are more effective when combined with diuretics or CCBs.
Choice D reason: Beta blockers are generally less effective in controlling blood pressure in Black patients unless there are specific indications such as arrhythmias or post-MI management. However, ACE inhibitors are still considered less effective overall in this demographic.
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