A 37-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presents to the nurse practitioner with a chief complaint of severe morning sickness. Which one of the following will the NP recommend?
Ondansetron (Zofran)
Metoclopramide (Reglan)
Promethazine (Phenergan)
Doxylamine (Unisom) and vitamin B6
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Ondansetron is a potent antiemetic that can be effective for nausea and vomiting, but it is typically not the first-line therapy in early pregnancy due to potential, albeit low, risks of fetal malformations. Its use is usually reserved for cases refractory to first-line interventions.
Choice B reason: Metoclopramide can be used for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, but it carries risks of extrapyramidal side effects and is generally not the first-line recommendation for mild to moderate morning sickness.
Choice C reason: Promethazine is an antihistamine antiemetic that can be used safely in pregnancy but is often reserved for more severe cases or when first-line therapy fails. Sedation is a common side effect.
Choice D reason: Doxylamine, an antihistamine, combined with vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is considered the first-line treatment for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. This combination has demonstrated efficacy and safety in early pregnancy, making it the preferred initial therapy for severe morning sickness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: HPV vaccination is not limited to females; males are also recommended to receive it for prevention of HPV-related diseases.
Choice B reason: While males are indicated, vaccination is not limited to them; females are also recommended.
Choice C reason: While routine vaccination is ideally given at ages 11-12, catch-up vaccination is recommended through age 26, making this choice incomplete.
Choice D reason: The HPV vaccine is indicated for all children and adults aged 9-26, including both genders, for both routine and catch-up vaccination.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: CBC, thyroid studies, and HbA1c are not standard pre-treatment requirements for anticonvulsants unless indicated by comorbid conditions.
Choice B reason: CSF analysis and urinalysis are typically reserved for diagnostic workup of seizures, not pre-treatment pharmacogenomic risk assessment.
Choice C reason: Certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine, carry a risk of severe cutaneous reactions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Individuals of Asian descent may carry HLA alleles (e.g., HLA-B*1502) that increase susceptibility. Screening reduces risk.
Choice D reason: Referral to psychiatry is unnecessary unless there is suspicion of non-epileptic seizures; it is not a standard consideration prior to anticonvulsant initiation.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
