A 37-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presents to the nurse practitioner with a chief complaint of severe morning sickness. Which one of the following will the NP recommend?
Ondansetron (Zofran)
Metoclopramide (Reglan)
Promethazine (Phenergan)
Doxylamine (Unisom) and vitamin B6
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Ondansetron is a potent antiemetic that can be effective for nausea and vomiting, but it is typically not the first-line therapy in early pregnancy due to potential, albeit low, risks of fetal malformations. Its use is usually reserved for cases refractory to first-line interventions.
Choice B reason: Metoclopramide can be used for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, but it carries risks of extrapyramidal side effects and is generally not the first-line recommendation for mild to moderate morning sickness.
Choice C reason: Promethazine is an antihistamine antiemetic that can be used safely in pregnancy but is often reserved for more severe cases or when first-line therapy fails. Sedation is a common side effect.
Choice D reason: Doxylamine, an antihistamine, combined with vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is considered the first-line treatment for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. This combination has demonstrated efficacy and safety in early pregnancy, making it the preferred initial therapy for severe morning sickness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Guided imagery is a mind-body intervention using mental visualization techniques and does not involve direct manipulation of the body.
Choice B reason: Meditation focuses on mindfulness and relaxation techniques without physical manipulation of muscles or joints.
Choice C reason: Reflexology is a manipulative body-based therapy that involves applying pressure to specific points on the feet, hands, or ears to stimulate healing and relaxation in corresponding body parts.
Choice D reason: Yoga combines physical postures, breathing, and meditation. While it involves the body, it is primarily classified as movement-based or mind-body therapy rather than strictly manipulative body-based therapy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Providing limited information without consent still breaches patient confidentiality and legal protections under HIPAA.
Choice B reason: The patient, being 18, is legally an adult and has the right to confidentiality regarding her medical and psychiatric care. Consent must be obtained before sharing any information.
Choice C reason: Health insurance coverage does not give a parent the right to access a patient’s medical details; legal protections ensure patient privacy.
Choice D reason: Telling the father to make an appointment does not resolve the confidentiality issue and could lead to inappropriate disclosure.
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