A 40-year-old woman began taking risperidone (Risperdal) for symptoms of schizoaffective disorder 3 days ago, and today she feels restless. She is pacing around and is unable to remain still. Which action should the PMHNP perform first?
Discontinue the risperidone and give the patient a low dose of clonazepam (Klonopin)
Continue the risperidone and start the patient on sertraline (Zoloft)
Discontinue the risperidone and give a dose of propranolol (Inderal)
Continue the risperidone and give the patient a low dose of clonazepam (Klonopin)
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Discontinuing risperidone immediately may not be necessary unless symptoms are severe or unmanageable. Clonazepam can help with akathisia, but abrupt discontinuation of antipsychotics may destabilize the patient’s psychiatric condition.
Choice B reason: Sertraline is an SSRI used for depression and anxiety, not for treating akathisia. Introducing it at this point would not address the patient’s restlessness and may complicate the clinical picture.
Choice C reason: Propranolol is effective for akathisia, but discontinuing risperidone prematurely may not be warranted. A better initial approach is to manage the side effect while continuing the antipsychotic, unless symptoms are intolerable.
Choice D reason: Akathisia is a common side effect of risperidone, especially early in treatment. Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine, can help reduce restlessness and agitation. Continuing risperidone while managing the side effect is appropriate unless symptoms worsen or persist. This approach balances symptom control with psychiatric stability.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: The amygdala is primarily involved in emotional processing, particularly fear and aggression. While it may influence sleep indirectly through emotional arousal, it is not the central regulator of the sleep-wake cycle.
Choice B reason: The hypothalamus plays a critical role in regulating the sleep-wake cycle. It contains the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), which serves as the body’s master circadian pacemaker. The SCN receives light input from the retina and synchronizes physiological processes, including melatonin release and sleep timing.
Choice C reason: The cerebellum is responsible for coordination of voluntary movements, balance, and motor learning. It does not have a direct role in sleep regulation.
Choice D reason: The frontal lobe is involved in executive functions, decision-making, and personality. Although sleep deprivation affects frontal lobe performance, it is not the primary center for sleep-wake regulation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: While pain and pallor are features of compartment syndrome, the inability to perform passive movements is not a hallmark sign. In fact, pain with passive movement is more indicative of increased intracompartmental pressure. This choice omits critical signs such as paresthesia and pulselessness, which are essential for diagnosis.
Choice B reason: This option includes pain and weakness, which may be present, but again lacks the specificity of pain with passive movement and the full spectrum of neurovascular compromise. Weakness alone is not sufficient to confirm compartment syndrome, and the absence of paresthesia and pulselessness makes this choice incomplete.
Choice C reason: This choice correctly lists the classic “5 P’s” of acute compartment syndrome: pain, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, and pallor. These signs reflect severe neurovascular compromise due to increased pressure within the compartment. Pain is typically out of proportion to the injury and worsens with passive stretch. Pulselessness and paralysis are late findings, indicating advanced ischemia.
Choice D reason: Pain with passive movement is a key early sign of compartment syndrome, but the inability to perform active movement and weakness alone do not encompass the full clinical picture. This option lacks paresthesia and pulselessness, which are critical for diagnosis.
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