The NP sees a 53-year-old woman of Asian descent who has a history of smoking and a BMI of 20. The NP evaluates her for osteoporosis. What is the pathophysiology of this disease process?
Osteoporosis is a progressive disease that damages or destroys synovial joint structure and articular cartilage of the joints.
Excess osteoclastic activity is followed by compensatory osteoblastic activity, leading to the formation of bone that is less compact, mechanically weaker, and more susceptible to fracture.
Osteoporosis is an autoimmune disorder in which inflammation of the synovium leads to joint destruction and deformity.
Osteoporosis is an imbalance of bone resorption and bone remodeling that leads to decreased skeletal mass.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: This description applies to osteoarthritis, not osteoporosis. Osteoarthritis involves degeneration of joint cartilage and synovial structures, whereas osteoporosis affects bone density and strength.
Choice B reason: While this statement touches on bone remodeling, it inaccurately suggests that compensatory osteoblastic activity leads to structurally inferior bone. In osteoporosis, the imbalance favors osteoclastic resorption over osteoblastic formation, resulting in net bone loss.
Choice C reason: This description is characteristic of autoimmune diseases like rheumatoid arthritis. Osteoporosis is not autoimmune in nature and does not involve synovial inflammation.
Choice D reason: Osteoporosis is defined by decreased bone mass and microarchitectural deterioration due to an imbalance between bone resorption and formation. Risk factors include smoking, low BMI, Asian ethnicity, and postmenopausal status, all of which apply to this patient. The disease increases fracture risk due to weakened bone structure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Cerebral edema is a rare but serious complication associated more with rapid shifts in osmolality, such as in dialysis disequilibrium syndrome. It is not the most common or significant complication of routine intermittent hemodialysis.
Choice B reason: Arrhythmias can occur due to electrolyte imbalances during dialysis, particularly with potassium shifts. However, they are less frequent and not as consistently observed as hypotension.
Choice C reason: Hypotension is the most frequent and significant complication of intermittent hemodialysis. It results from rapid fluid removal, autonomic dysfunction, or impaired cardiac output. It can lead to dizziness, nausea, cramps, and even syncope, making it a critical concern during dialysis sessions.
Choice D reason: Hypertension is a chronic issue in patients with kidney disease, but it is not a direct complication of the dialysis procedure itself. In fact, dialysis often helps manage fluid overload and blood pressure.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Discontinuing risperidone immediately may not be necessary unless symptoms are severe or unmanageable. Clonazepam can help with akathisia, but abrupt discontinuation of antipsychotics may destabilize the patient’s psychiatric condition.
Choice B reason: Sertraline is an SSRI used for depression and anxiety, not for treating akathisia. Introducing it at this point would not address the patient’s restlessness and may complicate the clinical picture.
Choice C reason: Propranolol is effective for akathisia, but discontinuing risperidone prematurely may not be warranted. A better initial approach is to manage the side effect while continuing the antipsychotic, unless symptoms are intolerable.
Choice D reason: Akathisia is a common side effect of risperidone, especially early in treatment. Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine, can help reduce restlessness and agitation. Continuing risperidone while managing the side effect is appropriate unless symptoms worsen or persist. This approach balances symptom control with psychiatric stability.
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