What is the pathogenesis of septic shock?
Extreme blood loss
An exaggerated systemic inflammatory response induced by infecting organisms
Acute allergic reaction
Injury to the myocardium
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Extreme blood loss is characteristic of hypovolemic shock, not septic shock. Hypovolemic shock results from a significant reduction in circulating blood volume due to hemorrhage or fluid loss, but it does not involve the immune-mediated cascade seen in sepsis.
Choice B reason: Septic shock is caused by an overwhelming infection that triggers a dysregulated host response, leading to widespread inflammation, endothelial dysfunction, vasodilation, and impaired tissue perfusion. This cascade is driven by microbial components such as lipopolysaccharides (LPS) binding to toll-like receptors, which activate cytokines like TNF and IL-1, resulting in systemic effects including hypotension and multi-organ dysfunction.
Choice C reason: Acute allergic reactions can lead to anaphylactic shock, which is mediated by IgE and histamine release, not by infectious agents. While both involve vasodilation and hypotension, the underlying mechanisms are distinct.
Choice D reason: Injury to the myocardium is a hallmark of cardiogenic shock, which results from impaired cardiac output due to myocardial infarction or arrhythmias. It does not explain the immune and vascular phenomena seen in septic shock.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Primary syphilis typically presents with a painless chancre at the site of inoculation. It does not cause a strawberry-like appearance of the cervix. Syphilitic lesions are ulcerative and not associated with the described colposcopic finding.
Choice B reason: Herpes simplex virus (HSV) causes painful vesicular or ulcerative lesions on the genital mucosa. It does not produce the characteristic strawberry cervix appearance seen in colposcopy.
Choice C reason: Human papillomavirus (HPV) is associated with cervical dysplasia and warts. Colposcopic findings may include acetowhite changes, mosaicism, or punctation, but not the strawberry cervix appearance.
Choice D reason: Trichomonas vaginalis infection is classically associated with a "strawberry cervix," which refers to punctate hemorrhages on the cervical mucosa. This is a hallmark finding in trichomoniasis and supports the diagnosis.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Schizophrenia requires symptoms to persist for at least six months, including at least one month of active-phase symptoms such as delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech. Since the boy’s symptoms have lasted only two months, this diagnosis is premature.
Choice B reason: Brief psychotic disorder involves sudden onset of psychotic symptoms lasting more than one day but less than one month, followed by full recovery. The boy’s symptoms have persisted for two months, which exceeds the duration criteria for this diagnosis.
Choice C reason: Schizoaffective disorder includes symptoms of schizophrenia along with prominent mood episodes (either depressive or manic). There is no mention of mood symptoms in this case, making schizoaffective disorder unlikely.
Choice D reason: Schizophreniform disorder is diagnosed when symptoms of schizophrenia are present for more than one month but less than six months. The boy’s delusions, social withdrawal, and communication difficulties over two months fit this timeframe, making this the most appropriate diagnosis.
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