A 47-year-old patient with a permanent colostomy reports some abdominal discomfort and rigidity 3 days after surgery. Which assessment should the nurse report and record?
Stoma is protruding.
Vital signs are temperature. 100° F. pulse. 92 beats/min; and blood pressure. 160/98 mm Hg.
Pouch has drained 110 mL of green-brown liquid, oozing from the pouch edges.
Stoma is swollen and red: small amount of blood is observed at the base.
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. Some mild protrusion of a stoma can be normal postoperatively, depending on the type of colostomy. Unless it is excessive, painful, or associated with other complications, it is not immediately alarming.
B. These vital signs indicate possible early infection or systemic response. A slightly elevated temperature and tachycardia 3 days post-surgery can suggest surgical site infection or intra-abdominal complication, and the elevated blood pressure could indicate pain or stress response. This finding must be reported and documented promptly for early intervention.
C. Green-brown liquid drainage is normal for colostomy output, especially in the early postoperative period. Minor oozing from the pouch edges may indicate minor skin irritation, which is common and does not require urgent reporting.
D. Mild swelling, redness, and a small amount of bleeding at the stoma base are common in the immediate postoperative period due to surgical trauma. While it should be monitored, it is not as urgent as systemic signs like abnormal vital signs.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Agranulocytosis is an extreme decrease in neutrophils, which increases the risk of infection. Invasive procedures are not specifically minimized for bleeding risk but rather infection control measures are prioritized.
B. Leukopenia (low white blood cell count) increases susceptibility to infection, so precautions focus on protecting from infection, not necessarily minimizing invasive procedures due to bleeding.
C. Anemia (low red blood cell count) primarily affects oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to fatigue or dyspnea. It does not directly increase the risk of bleeding, so invasive procedures are not minimized solely for anemia.
D. Thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) increases the risk of bleeding and bruising. Minimizing invasive procedures such as injections, IV insertions, or rectal exams is critical to prevent hemorrhage or hematoma formation. This is why patients with thrombocytopenia require careful handling and sometimes platelet transfusions before necessary invasive interventions.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Before administering pain medication, the nurse must assess the client’s pain to determine its intensity, location, and characteristics. Using a standardized pain rating scale ensures accurate dosing, helps evaluate the effectiveness of interventions, and prevents under- or over-medication. Pain assessment is considered the first and essential step in pain management.
B. Nonpharmacologic methods like distraction can help manage pain, but they do not replace the need for a proper pain assessment before administering medication. These techniques are complementary interventions, not a substitute for assessment.
C. Administering medication without assessing the pain level is unsafe. It can lead to inappropriate dosing, ineffective pain relief, or adverse effects. Proper assessment guides safe and effective pain management.
D. Relaxation techniques may be helpful as adjunctive pain management, but they should not precede pain assessment. Accurate assessment is necessary to determine if pharmacologic intervention is needed and at what dose.
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