A 49-year-old female patient presents to the nurse practitioner with new onset iron deficiency anemia. Which meal plan would reflect the patient’s understanding of an appropriate diet?
Coffee with scrambled egg whites, soy milk, and protein shake
Pork chop, apple sauce, cornbread, and apple pie
Chicken salad sandwich, potato salad, and ice cream
Steak, spinach, apricots, beans, and raisin oatmeal cookies
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Egg whites and soy milk contain minimal heme iron and coffee can inhibit iron absorption, making this plan insufficient for iron repletion.
Choice B reason: While pork contains some heme iron, the meal lacks variety and plant sources rich in iron, and desserts do not contribute significant iron.
Choice C reason: Chicken salad provides limited heme iron and potato salad is low in iron; overall, the meal does not adequately support iron repletion.
Choice D reason: This meal includes both heme iron (steak) and non-heme iron (spinach, beans, raisins, apricots), and vitamin C from fruits enhances absorption, reflecting proper dietary understanding for iron deficiency anemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Class I heart failure is defined as patients who experience no limitation of physical activity. Ordinary physical activity does not cause undue fatigue, palpitation, or dyspnea, which fits the description of this patient.
Choice B reason: Class II involves slight limitation of physical activity; the patient is comfortable at rest but ordinary activity results in symptoms. This patient is asymptomatic with ordinary activity, so Class II is less appropriate.
Choice C reason: Class III involves marked limitation of physical activity; patients are comfortable at rest but less than ordinary activity causes symptoms. The patient is not experiencing this degree of limitation.
Choice D reason: Class IV involves inability to carry on any physical activity without discomfort; symptoms may be present at rest. The patient does not have this level of functional limitation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: The raphe nucleus primarily regulates serotonin production and mood but is not the central mechanism in anxiety pathophysiology.
Choice B reason: The ventral tegmental area is part of the reward pathway and is associated with dopamine, relevant to motivation and addiction, not primary anxiety mechanisms.
Choice C reason: This is correct. Dysregulation of the HPA axis is central to anxiety disorders. Activation of the amygdala triggers the hypothalamus to release CRH, stimulating ACTH from the pituitary, which then triggers cortisol release from the adrenal glands. Chronic activation can lead to persistent anxiety symptoms.
Choice D reason: The locus coeruleus regulates norepinephrine and arousal; while it contributes to anxiety responses, the HPA axis is the primary system implicated in sustained anxiety disorders.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.