A 51-year-old woman will be taking selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) as part of treatment for postmenopausal osteoporosis. The nurse reviews potential contraindications, including which condition?

Venous thromboembolism

Breast cancer

Hypocalcemia

Stress fractures

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Venous thromboembolism is a contraindication for taking SERMs. SERMs are drugs that act like estrogen in some tissues and block estrogen in others. They can help prevent bone loss and fractures in postmenopausal women, but they can also increase the risk of blood clots in the veins, such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Therefore, women who have a history of or are at high risk for venous thromboembolism should not take SERMs.

Choice B reason: Breast cancer is not a contraindication for taking SERMs. In fact, some SERMs, such as tamoxifen and raloxifene, are used to treat or prevent breast cancer in women who have estrogen receptor-positive tumors. These SERMs block the effects of estrogen in the breast tissue and reduce the growth of cancer cells.

Choice C reason: Hypocalcemia is not a contraindication for taking SERMs. Hypocalcemia is a low level of calcium in the blood. SERMs do not affect calcium levels directly, but they can help prevent calcium loss from the bones by mimicking the effects of estrogen in the bone tissue. However, women who take SERMs should also take adequate calcium and vitamin D supplements to maintain bone health.

Choice D reason: Stress fractures are not a contraindication for taking SERMs. Stress fractures are small cracks in the bones that result from repeated stress or overuse. SERMs can help prevent stress fractures by strengthening the bones and reducing the risk of osteoporosis. However, women who take SERMs should also avoid excessive or inappropriate physical activity that can cause stress fractures.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Rotating the injection sites within the same location for a week is not correct. The client should rotate the injection sites within the same location each day to prevent lipodystrophy and ensure consistent absorption.

Choice B reason: Storing the unopened vials of insulin in the freezer is not correct. The client should store the unopened vials of insulin in the refrigerator, not the freezer, to prevent damage to the insulin.

Choice C reason: Drawing up the regular insulin before the NPH insulin is correct. The client should draw up the clear (regular) insulin before the cloudy (NPH) insulin to prevent contamination of the regular insulin with the NPH insulin.

Choice D reason: Injecting the insulin into the muscle for faster absorption is not correct. The client should inject the insulin into the subcutaneous tissue, not the muscle, to ensure appropriate absorption and prevent hypoglycemia.

A. Hemoglobin A1C level B. Serum insulin level C. Fingerstick fasting blood glucose level D. Hemoglobin level

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is correct because hemoglobin A1C level reflects the average blood glucose level over the past 2 to 3 months. It is a reliable indicator of the patient's glycemic control and adherence to the antidiabetic therapy. The goal for most patients with type 2 diabetes is to keep the hemoglobin A1C level below 7%.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because serum insulin level is not a good measure of the patient's adherence to the antidiabetic therapy, as it may vary depending on the type, dose, and timing of the insulin or oral antidiabetic agents. Serum insulin level may also be affected by other factors, such as stress, infection, or exercise.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because fingerstick fasting blood glucose level only reflects the blood glucose level at a single point in time. It does not provide information about the patient's long-term glycemic control or adherence to the antidiabetic therapy. Fingerstick fasting blood glucose level may also be influenced by the patient's diet, activity, or medication intake before the test.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect because hemoglobin level is not related to the patient's adherence to the antidiabetic therapy, as it measures the amount of oxygen-carrying protein in the red blood cells. Hemoglobin level may be affected by conditions such as anemia, dehydration, or blood loss.

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A 51-year-old woman will be taking selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) as part of treatment for postmenopausal osteoporosis. The nurse reviews potential contraindications, including which condition?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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