A 54-year-old reports vomiting blood. Tests reveal portal hypertension. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?
Left ventricular failure.
Cirrhosis of the liver.
Thrombosis in the spleen.
Renal stenosis.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice B reason: Cirrhosis of the liver is the most likely cause of portal hypertension. Cirrhosis leads to scarring and fibrosis of the liver tissue, which obstructs blood flow through the liver and increases pressure in the portal vein, resulting in portal hypertension.
Choice A reason: Left ventricular failure is not a common cause of portal hypertension. It primarily affects the heart and can lead to pulmonary congestion and systemic edema, but not portal hypertension.
Choice C reason: Thrombosis in the spleen can contribute to portal hypertension, but it is not the most common cause. Cirrhosis of the liver is a more prevalent and significant cause of this condition.
Choice D reason: Renal stenosis affects the blood vessels supplying the kidneys and is not related to portal hypertension. It can lead to hypertension, but not specifically portal hypertension.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
In patients with chronic renal failure, the kidneys cannot effectively excrete magnesium, leading to the risk of hypermagnesemia. Magnesium hydroxide, commonly used as an antacid and laxative, should be used with caution or avoided in these patients to prevent magnesium accumulation in the blood, which can have serious cardiovascular and neuromuscular effects.
Choice B reason:
While cirrhosis affects liver function and can alter drug metabolism, magnesium hydroxide does not have a direct contraindication for use in patients with cirrhosis. However, caution is necessary due to potential electrolyte imbalances and altered pharmacokinetics. The primary concern with magnesium hydroxide in these patients is less critical compared to those with renal failure.
Choice C reason:
Hemorrhoids do not directly contraindicate the use of magnesium hydroxide. This condition primarily affects the veins around the rectum and anus and is unrelated to the systemic effects of magnesium. Therefore, the presence of hemorrhoids does not necessitate withholding the medication.
Choice D reason:
Undiagnosed abdominal pain is a significant consideration before administering magnesium hydroxide. The use of laxatives can exacerbate conditions like intestinal obstruction or acute abdomen. Therefore, caution is advised, but the immediate and more critical concern remains the risk posed to patients with chronic renal failure.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Abdominal ultrasound and chest X-ray are not the first-line tests for a patient presenting with these symptoms. While they can be useful in assessing certain conditions, the priority in this case is to rule out cardiac causes, especially given the symptoms that could indicate a cardiac event.
Choice B reason:
Testing the acidity of gastric contents and assessing the throat is not relevant for the initial evaluation of these symptoms. While gastrointestinal issues can present with similar symptoms, the first step should be to rule out more serious cardiac causes.
Choice C reason:
Electrocardiogram (EKG) and serum troponin levels are the correct answer. These tests are critical in assessing cardiac function and identifying potential myocardial infarction or other cardiac issues. Given the patient's symptoms, which can be indicative of a cardiac event, these tests are prioritized to rule out any immediate cardiac threats.
Choice D reason:
Abdominal X-ray and colonoscopy are not appropriate first-line tests in this scenario. While they may be necessary later to investigate gastrointestinal issues, the primary concern given the patient's symptoms is to rule out cardiac events with an EKG and serum troponin levels.
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