A nurse is discussing intravenous Amphotericin B treatment with a nursing student who is about to care for a patient with a systemic fungal infection. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
There is an infusion reaction to Amphotericin B
Infusions of Amphotericin B should be administered rapidly
The IV site should be rotated frequently to reduce the risk of phlebitis or use bigger vein for the treatment like central line
Amphotericin B is for treatment of fungal infection
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
As mentioned earlier, infusion reactions are common with Amphotericin B, including symptoms like fever and chills. Therefore, recognizing that these reactions occur is correct and indicates a proper understanding of the medication's effects.
Choice B reason:
Rapid administration of Amphotericin B is incorrect because it increases the risk of severe side effects. The infusion should be slow to ensure patient safety, indicating that the student needs further teaching on this point. Thus, this choice is incorrect and suggests a misunderstanding.
Choice C reason:
Frequent rotation of the IV site or the use of a central line is standard practice to minimize the risk of phlebitis. This practice is correct and shows that the student understands how to manage the complications associated with Amphotericin B infusion.
Choice D reason:
Amphotericin B's primary use is to treat systemic fungal infections. This is a correct statement, reflecting an accurate understanding of the drug's purpose and does not require further teaching.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Amoxicillin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections. It has no role in the management of atrial fibrillation, which is a cardiac rhythm disorder. Antibiotics do not address the prevention of thromboembolism or the control of heart rate or rhythm.
Choice B reason:
Reglan (metoclopramide) is a medication used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and gastroparesis. It does not have any indication for use in atrial fibrillation. The management of atrial fibrillation focuses on rate or rhythm control and anticoagulation.
Choice C reason:
Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) is an anticoagulant that is commonly prescribed for patients with atrial fibrillation to prevent stroke and systemic embolism. Since atrial fibrillation increases the risk of thromboembolism, anticoagulation is a crucial component of the treatment plan to reduce the risk of stroke.
Choice D reason:
Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to treat acid-related stomach issues such as GERD. It is not relevant to the management of atrial fibrillation. The primary concerns in managing atrial fibrillation are controlling the heart rate and preventing thromboembolism, which omeprazole does not address.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Hypotension is not the likely cause of chest pain that does not improve after sublingual Nitroglycerin in a patient with a history of atherosclerosis. While hypotension can cause symptoms, the description of chest pain at rest that does not respond to Nitroglycerin suggests a more severe cardiac issue.
Choice B reason:
Stable angina typically occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest or Nitroglycerin. Chest pain consistent at rest that does not improve with Nitroglycerin suggests unstable angina, which is a more serious condition and requires immediate medical attention.
Choice C reason:
Unstable angina is the correct answer. It occurs when chest pain happens at rest and is not relieved by Nitroglycerin, indicating that the blood flow to the heart is severely restricted. This condition is a medical emergency as it can lead to a myocardial infarction.
Choice D reason:
Coronary vasodilation would typically relieve chest pain by increasing blood flow to the heart. The pain described is more consistent with unstable angina, where there is a significant reduction in blood flow to the heart that does not respond to vasodilation.
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