A 35-year-old White man with a history of diabetes presents to the nurse practitioner with complaints of headache, blurred vision, eye strain, and "floaters." He has been told it's "all in his head" and that he should see a psychiatrist. Which of the following manifestations is considered the primary indicator of cataract formation in its early stage?
Blurred vision
Headache
Floaters
Eye strain
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Blurred vision is the hallmark early symptom of cataract formation. It results from the clouding of the lens, which scatters light and reduces visual clarity. Patients often describe difficulty reading, glare sensitivity, and needing more light for tasks.
Choice B reason: Headache is not a typical symptom of cataracts. It may occur with other ocular conditions like glaucoma or refractive errors but is not a primary indicator of lens opacity.
Choice C reason: Floaters are associated with vitreous degeneration or retinal detachment, not cataracts. They appear as spots or threads in the visual field and are unrelated to lens changes.
Choice D reason: Eye strain may occur with uncorrected refractive errors or prolonged screen use but is not a defining feature of cataracts. It lacks the specificity and diagnostic relevance of blurred vision.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Divalproex is an anticonvulsant approved for migraine prophylaxis. It modulates neurotransmitter activity and reduces neuronal excitability, making it effective for chronic migraine prevention.
Choice B reason: Topiramate is another anticonvulsant with proven efficacy in migraine prophylaxis. It reduces frequency and severity by stabilizing neuronal firing and inhibiting cortical spreading depression.
Choice C reason: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker commonly used for migraine prevention. It reduces sympathetic nervous system activity and stabilizes vascular tone, helping to prevent migraine attacks.
Choice D reason: Sumatriptan is a triptan used for acute migraine treatment, not prophylaxis. It acts as a serotonin receptor agonist to abort migraine episodes but does not prevent their occurrence. Therefore, it is not considered first-line for prophylaxis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Telmisartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), which prevents angiotensin II from binding to its receptors but does not inhibit its formation. ARBs are less likely to cause a dry cough because they do not increase bradykinin levels.
Choice B reason: Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. It blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, reducing vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion. A common side effect is a persistent dry cough due to increased bradykinin levels, making it the correct answer.
Choice C reason: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle to lower blood pressure. It does not affect the renin-angiotensin system and is not associated with dry cough.
Choice D reason: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. It is used to manage fluid overload in heart failure and hypertension but does not act on the renin-angiotensin system or cause dry cough.
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