A nurse practitioner (NP) has accepted a position at a hemodialysis facility. What is the most significant complication of intermittent hemodialysis?
Cerebral edema
Arrhythmias
Hypotension
Hypertension
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Cerebral edema is a rare but serious complication associated more with rapid shifts in osmolality, such as in dialysis disequilibrium syndrome. It is not the most common or significant complication of routine intermittent hemodialysis.
Choice B reason: Arrhythmias can occur due to electrolyte imbalances during dialysis, particularly with potassium shifts. However, they are less frequent and not as consistently observed as hypotension.
Choice C reason: Hypotension is the most frequent and significant complication of intermittent hemodialysis. It results from rapid fluid removal, autonomic dysfunction, or impaired cardiac output. It can lead to dizziness, nausea, cramps, and even syncope, making it a critical concern during dialysis sessions.
Choice D reason: Hypertension is a chronic issue in patients with kidney disease, but it is not a direct complication of the dialysis procedure itself. In fact, dialysis often helps manage fluid overload and blood pressure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Leuprolide is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist that initially stimulates and then suppresses the release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), leading to decreased estrogen production from the ovaries. It is commonly used in transgender men to suppress endogenous female hormone production prior to or alongside testosterone therapy. This suppression helps reduce menstruation and estrogen-driven secondary sex characteristics, facilitating masculinization.
Choice B reason: Spironolactone is primarily used in male-to-female (MTF) transitions to block androgen receptors and reduce testosterone effects. It is not used to suppress estrogen in female-to-male (FTM) transitions and would not be appropriate for this client.
Choice C reason: Estrogen is a feminizing hormone and would counteract the goals of masculinization in a female-to-male transition. Administering estrogen would increase female secondary sex characteristics, which is the opposite of the desired effect.
Choice D reason: Testosterone is the primary hormone used to induce masculinization in female-to-male transitions. However, it does not suppress endogenous estrogen production directly. While it promotes male secondary sex characteristics, it is often combined with agents like GnRH agonists (e.g., Leuprolide) to effectively suppress female hormone activity.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This description applies to osteoarthritis, not osteoporosis. Osteoarthritis involves degeneration of joint cartilage and synovial structures, whereas osteoporosis affects bone density and strength.
Choice B reason: While this statement touches on bone remodeling, it inaccurately suggests that compensatory osteoblastic activity leads to structurally inferior bone. In osteoporosis, the imbalance favors osteoclastic resorption over osteoblastic formation, resulting in net bone loss.
Choice C reason: This description is characteristic of autoimmune diseases like rheumatoid arthritis. Osteoporosis is not autoimmune in nature and does not involve synovial inflammation.
Choice D reason: Osteoporosis is defined by decreased bone mass and microarchitectural deterioration due to an imbalance between bone resorption and formation. Risk factors include smoking, low BMI, Asian ethnicity, and postmenopausal status, all of which apply to this patient. The disease increases fracture risk due to weakened bone structure.
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