A 67-year-old woman is diagnosed with bacterial pneumonia. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor that determines whether she can be treated on an inpatient or outpatient basis?
Mental status
Blood pressure
Uremia
BMI over 30
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Altered mental status is a significant risk factor for inpatient treatment. It may indicate severe infection, sepsis, or poor ability to manage care independently, necessitating hospitalization.
Choice B reason: Hypotension or unstable blood pressure is a marker of severe illness and may require inpatient monitoring and intravenous therapy. It is a key factor in severity scoring systems like CURB-65.
Choice C reason: Uremia, or elevated blood urea nitrogen, reflects systemic involvement and poor renal function, which increases the risk of complications and supports inpatient management.
Choice D reason: A BMI over 30 indicates obesity, which may increase general health risks but is not a direct criterion for inpatient versus outpatient treatment in pneumonia. It does not independently determine treatment setting.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: PANSS is not a self-report tool. It is a clinician-administered scale that requires structured interviews and observation. Patients do not complete it independently.
Choice B reason: While PANSS does assess both positive and negative symptoms, this answer is incomplete. PANSS also includes a third domain—general psychopathology—which encompasses symptoms like anxiety, depression, and cognitive impairment.
Choice C reason: PANSS is comprehensive and takes time to administer. It includes 30 items rated on a 7-point scale and requires clinical expertise, making it more complex than brief screening tools.
Choice D reason: PANSS is distinct in its tripartite structure, measuring positive symptoms (e.g., hallucinations, delusions), negative symptoms (e.g., blunted affect, social withdrawal), and general psychopathology (e.g., anxiety, poor impulse control). This multidimensional approach provides a thorough evaluation of schizophrenia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Psychotic symptoms in bipolar disorder can last longer than one month, especially during severe manic or depressive episodes. The duration alone does not differentiate bipolar disorder from schizoaffective disorder.
Choice B reason: In bipolar disorder, psychotic symptoms are mood-congruent and occur exclusively during mood episodes. In contrast, schizoaffective disorder includes psychotic symptoms that persist independently of mood disturbances, which is the key distinguishing feature.
Choice C reason: Schizoaffective disorder can include both depressive and manic or hypomanic episodes. It is not limited to depressive episodes alone. The subtype (depressive type or bipolar type) depends on the nature of the mood episodes.
Choice D reason: Schizoaffective disorder often includes full-blown episodes of major depression. The presence of major depressive episodes is part of the diagnostic criteria for the depressive subtype of schizoaffective disorder.
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