A 40-year-old woman calls the PMHNP with concerns that she is exhibiting both negative and positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Which of the following descriptions about gender differences in schizophrenia is true?
The overall incidence of schizophrenia is higher in women than in men.
A first onset of schizophrenia after age 40 is more likely in women than in men.
Women with schizophrenia tend to have fewer psychotic symptoms than men over the course of the illness.
Psychotic symptoms in women tend to decrease in frequency to a greater extent compared to men.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: The overall incidence of schizophrenia is slightly higher in men than in women. Men tend to have an earlier onset and more severe course, while women often have a later onset and better social functioning.
Choice B reason: Women are more likely to experience a second peak of schizophrenia onset after age 40, often associated with hormonal changes such as menopause. This late-onset pattern is less common in men, making this statement accurate.
Choice C reason: Women may experience fewer negative symptoms and better social outcomes, but psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions can be equally present. The course of psychosis is not necessarily milder in women.
Choice D reason: While women may respond better to treatment and have better social functioning, the frequency of psychotic symptoms does not consistently decrease more than in men. Symptom trajectory varies individually.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Metronidazole has shown efficacy in treating perianal Crohn’s disease and mild-to-moderate disease activity, particularly when infection or abscess is suspected. It is often used as adjunct therapy.
Choice B reason: Sulfasalazine is more effective in ulcerative colitis than in Crohn’s disease. Its benefit in Crohn’s is limited and not considered first-line, especially for small bowel involvement. This makes the statement incorrect.
Choice C reason: Thiopurines such as azathioprine and 6-mercaptopurine are immunomodulators used to maintain remission and reduce steroid dependence. They are effective in long-term management of Crohn’s disease.
Choice D reason: NSAIDs can exacerbate Crohn’s disease by increasing intestinal permeability and promoting inflammation. Their use is generally avoided in patients with inflammatory bowel disease.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: The copper intrauterine device (IUD) is a non-hormonal contraceptive method and is considered the safest option for women with active breast cancer. Since it does not release hormones, it avoids the risk of hormone-sensitive tumor stimulation and provides highly effective long-term contraception.
Choice B reason: Progesterone-only pills contain synthetic progestins, which may pose a risk in hormone-sensitive breast cancers. Although they are sometimes used in select cases, they are generally avoided in women with active breast cancer due to potential hormonal influence on tumor growth.
Choice C reason: Combined oral contraceptives contain both estrogen and progestin, which are contraindicated in women with breast cancer due to their potential to stimulate hormone receptor-positive tumors. This method is not safe for this patient population.
Choice D reason: Hormonal implants release progestin over time and are not recommended for women with active breast cancer. Like other hormonal methods, they may increase the risk of cancer progression in hormone-sensitive cases.
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