A 40-year-old woman calls the PMHNP with concerns that she is exhibiting both negative and positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Which of the following descriptions about gender differences in schizophrenia is true?

The overall incidence of schizophrenia is higher in women than in men.

A first onset of schizophrenia after age 40 is more likely in women than in men.

Women with schizophrenia tend to have fewer psychotic symptoms than men over the course of the illness.

Psychotic symptoms in women tend to decrease in frequency to a greater extent compared to men.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: The overall incidence of schizophrenia is slightly higher in men than in women. Men tend to have an earlier onset and more severe course, while women often have a later onset and better social functioning.

Choice B reason: Women are more likely to experience a second peak of schizophrenia onset after age 40, often associated with hormonal changes such as menopause. This late-onset pattern is less common in men, making this statement accurate.

Choice C reason: Women may experience fewer negative symptoms and better social outcomes, but psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions can be equally present. The course of psychosis is not necessarily milder in women.

Choice D reason: While women may respond better to treatment and have better social functioning, the frequency of psychotic symptoms does not consistently decrease more than in men. Symptom trajectory varies individually.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Telmisartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), which prevents angiotensin II from binding to its receptors but does not inhibit its formation. ARBs are less likely to cause a dry cough because they do not increase bradykinin levels.

Choice B reason: Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. It blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, reducing vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion. A common side effect is a persistent dry cough due to increased bradykinin levels, making it the correct answer.

Choice C reason: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle to lower blood pressure. It does not affect the renin-angiotensin system and is not associated with dry cough.

Choice D reason: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. It is used to manage fluid overload in heart failure and hypertension but does not act on the renin-angiotensin system or cause dry cough.

A. 18–25 years B. 25–35 years C. 16–20 years D. 40–50 years

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: While schizophrenia often begins in late adolescence or early adulthood, this age range is more typical for males. Women tend to have a slightly later onset, often in their late twenties to early thirties.

Choice B reason: The typical age of onset for schizophrenia in women is between 25 and 35 years. This later onset compared to men may be influenced by hormonal factors such as estrogen, which has neuroprotective effects and may delay symptom emergence.

Choice C reason: The 16–20 age range is more characteristic of early-onset schizophrenia, which is rare and more frequently observed in males. It is not the typical age range for women.

Choice D reason: Onset between 40–50 years is considered late-onset schizophrenia, which is uncommon and more frequently seen in women, but it is not typical. Most cases in women begin earlier.

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A 40-year-old woman calls the PMHNP with concerns that she is exhibiting both negative and positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Which of the following descriptions about gender differences in schizophrenia is true?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which of the following medications exerts its effects by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, is typically used to treat hypertension or congestive heart failure, and has dry cough as a common side effect?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The PMHNP has diagnosed a female patient with schizophrenia. In women, what is the typical age of onset for this disease?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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