A 7-year-old boy has just been diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). His parents want to try nonpharmacologic treatments. Which of the following is not a valid nonpharmacologic treatment for ADHD?
Cognitive behavioral therapy for the parent or parents
Family therapy and education
Dietary modifications
Treatment of learning disorders
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) for parents is a valid and evidence-based intervention for managing ADHD. It helps parents develop strategies to reinforce positive behaviors and manage symptoms effectively.
Choice B reason: Family therapy and education are important components of ADHD management. Educating the family about the disorder and improving communication can enhance treatment outcomes and reduce stress.
Choice C reason: Dietary modifications, such as reducing artificial additives or exploring elimination diets, have been explored as adjunctive treatments. While evidence is mixed, they are considered valid nonpharmacologic options under clinical guidance.
Choice D reason: Treatment of learning disorders is important if comorbid conditions exist, but it is not a direct treatment for ADHD itself. Learning disorders may coexist with ADHD, but addressing them does not target core ADHD symptoms like inattention, hyperactivity, or impulsivity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease is a rare neurodegenerative disorder caused by prion proteins. It presents with rapidly progressive dementia, myoclonus, and motor dysfunction, but does not typically include the classic triad of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Choice B reason: Lewy body dementia is characterized by fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, and parkinsonian features. While it may include motor and cognitive symptoms, it does not typically present with the acute ocular and vestibular signs seen in Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Choice C reason: Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a neurologic emergency caused by thiamine deficiency, often due to chronic alcohol abuse. The classic triad includes ophthalmoplegia (e.g., nystagmus), ataxia, and confusion. The patient’s history and symptoms strongly support this diagnosis.
Choice D reason: Delirium is an acute disturbance in attention and cognition, often reversible and multifactorial. While it may coexist with Wernicke’s encephalopathy, it does not explain the specific ocular and vestibular findings.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Korsakoff’s syndrome is a chronic neuropsychiatric condition resulting from thiamine deficiency, most commonly associated with prolonged alcohol use. It is characterized by severe memory impairment, including both retrograde and anterograde amnesia, and confabulation—where the patient fills in memory gaps with fabricated stories. This clinical presentation matches the description provided.
Choice B reason: Lewy body dementia involves fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, and parkinsonian features. It does not typically present with confabulation or the specific memory deficits seen in Korsakoff’s syndrome.
Choice C reason: Delirium is an acute, fluctuating disturbance in attention and awareness, often reversible. It does not cause persistent amnesia or confabulation and is not consistent with the chronic nature of this patient’s symptoms.
Choice D reason: Kuru is a rare prion disease historically found in Papua New Guinea, associated with cannibalistic rituals. It presents with tremors and neurodegeneration but is not relevant to this case and does not involve confabulation or alcohol-related pathology.
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