A 70-year-old client comes to the hospital for after suffering a syncopal episode. Patient states that she felt dizzy when she stood up, then passed out. The client's blood pressure on admission is 88/48 mmHg. A list of medications is obtained as part of the medication reconciliation process. Which three medications are most likely to have contributed to this client's signs and symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
Diltiazem
Carbidopa/levodopa
Hydrochlorothiazide
Metoprolol
Aspirin
Correct Answer : A,C,D
A. Diltiazem: This calcium channel blocker reduces blood pressure and slows the heart rate, both of which can contribute to orthostatic hypotension. In a 70-year-old patient, the baroreceptor reflex is less efficient, making them more susceptible to syncopal episodes during position changes. Lowering systemic vascular resistance too much can result in an acute drop in cerebral perfusion.
B. Carbidopa/levodopa: This medication is primarily used to treat Parkinson's disease and, while it can cause some hypotension, it is not a primary cardiovascular agent. Its impact on blood pressure is generally less profound than that of diuretics or dedicated antihypertensives. It is less likely than the other choices to be the primary driver of a blood pressure of 88/48.
C. Hydrochlorothiazide: Diuretics reduce the total intravascular volume by promoting the excretion of sodium and water. A decrease in blood volume directly lowers the blood pressure and can lead to dehydration-related syncope. This medication is a very common cause of orthostatic dizziness and falls in the geriatric population.
D. Metoprolol: As a beta-blocker, metoprolol reduces cardiac output and inhibits the compensatory tachycardia usually seen when standing. This prevents the body from quickly adjusting the blood pressure during postural changes, leading to the reported dizziness. The combination of reduced heart rate and reduced force of contraction contributes to the hypotensive state.
E. aspirin: Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent used for the prevention of cardiovascular events and does not have a direct effect on blood pressure. It does not cause vasodilation, volume depletion, or changes in heart rate that would lead to syncope. Its primary side effects are related to gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding risks rather than hemodynamics.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Laying in Trendelenburg position: This position involves placing the head lower than the feet, which significantly increases venous return to the heart. In a patient with valvular disease, this extra volume would exacerbate pulmonary congestion and severely worsen respiratory distress. This position is strictly contraindicated for anyone experiencing orthopnea or congestive heart failure.
B. Laying flat on their back: A supine position allows fluid to redistribute from the lower extremities into the pulmonary circulation. This increase in preload overwhelms the failing heart's ability to pump, leading to acute shortness of breath. Patients with orthopnea cannot tolerate lying flat and will instinctively seek an upright position to breathe.
C. Laying in bed in semi-Fowler's position with multiple pillows under their head: Elevating the upper body uses gravity to keep fluid in the lower extremities and reduce the volume of blood returning to the heart. This decreases pulmonary capillary pressure and allows for better lung expansion and gas exchange. Using multiple pillows is a classic compensatory behavior for patients with valvular-induced heart failure.
D. Laying prone in the bed flat: The prone position restricts chest wall expansion and does not address the issue of fluid redistribution to the lungs. Lying flat in any orientation will trigger the sensation of breathlessness associated with orthopnea. Proper nursing care for these patients requires maintaining a high-Fowler's or semi-Fowler's position to optimize respiratory effort.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "I will take another tablet every 5 minutes if the pain continues up to 3 doses and then I will call 911 if the chest pain does not go away.": This statement reflects the standard emergency protocol for managing acute anginal episodes at home. It ensures the patient receives maximum pharmacological benefit while establishing a clear timeline for seeking emergency medical intervention. Adhering to this 15-minute window is crucial for preventing extensive myocardial damage.
B. "I take this medication at bedtime everything.": Nitroglycerin tablets are intended for the PRN treatment of acute chest pain, not as a scheduled nightly medication. Taking the drug without active symptoms can lead to significant hypotension and unnecessary side effects like headaches. Bedtime dosing is not the indicated use for sublingual nitroglycerin therapy.
C. "I will swallow the tablet whole with grapefruit juice.": Sublingual nitroglycerin must be dissolved under the tongue to bypass first-pass hepatic metabolism and enter the bloodstream rapidly. Swallowing the tablet significantly reduces its effectiveness and delays the onset of action during an ischemic event. Furthermore, grapefruit juice can interact with various cardiovascular medications and should be avoided.
D. "I take three tablets all at one time if I have chest pain.": Taking multiple doses simultaneously can cause a profound and dangerous drop in blood pressure. The doses must be spaced 5 minutes apart to allow the nurse or patient to evaluate the effectiveness and monitor for adverse effects. Proper titration is essential for safe and effective vasodilation.
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