A client is admitted for recurrent peripheral edema. On admission the patient is AAOX3, lungs are clear to auscultations. Heart rate is 88 bmp, regular rate and rhythm. Respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute. Abdomen is soft non-tender non-distended, last BM was yesterday and was reported by the patient to be soft, normal brown color. Patient has +2 pitting edema of the bilateral hands and bilateral ankles and feet. Blood pressure is 150/82 mmHg. Pulse ox is 88% on 3 liters of oxygen by nasal cannula.
What findings in this assessment require follow-up?
Pulse ox of 88% on 3 1pm NC
Lungs are clear to auscultation
+ 2 pitting edema of the bilateral hands
+ 2 pitting edema of the ankles and feet
Blood pressure of 150/82
Respiratory rate is 24
Abdomen is soft, non-tender, non-distended
Client is alert and oriented x 3
Heart rate is 88 bpm
Correct Answer : A,C,D,E,F
A. Pulse ox of 88% on 3 1pm NC: An oxygen saturation of 88% while receiving 3 liters of oxygen indicates significant impairment in gas exchange. This value is below the standard therapeutic target and suggests worsening pulmonary involvement or ventilation-perfusion mismatch. This finding requires immediate medical evaluation and potential adjustment of respiratory support.
B. Lungs are clear to auscultation: This is a normal finding indicating that, at the time of assessment, there is no audible fluid in the alveoli. While heart failure often causes crackles, clear lungs do not require immediate follow-up as an abnormal finding. It serves as a baseline for monitoring future respiratory changes.
C. + 2 pitting edema of the bilateral hands: Edema in the upper extremities is an atypical finding for standard dependent edema and suggests severe systemic fluid retention. It indicates that the venous backup has progressed beyond the lower extremities to involve more superior vascular beds. This requires investigation into the underlying cause of generalized anasarca.
D. + 2 pitting edema of the ankles and feet: Pitting edema in the lower extremities is a clinical manifestation of systemic venous congestion and fluid volume excess. This finding indicates that the current treatment for peripheral edema is not yet effective. The nurse must monitor this to evaluate the patient's response to diuretic therapy.
E. Blood pressure of 150/82: This reading indicates Stage 2 hypertension, which contributes to increased afterload and exacerbates heart failure. Elevated systemic vascular resistance places additional strain on the myocardium and impairs efficient pumping. Persistent hypertension requires pharmacological management to prevent further cardiac remodeling and damage.
F. Respiratory rate is 24: A rate of 24 breaths per minute is tachypneic and suggests the patient is compensating for hypoxia or decreased lung compliance. This increased work of breathing often precedes more severe respiratory distress in fluid-overloaded patients. It correlates with the low pulse oximetry and necessitates closer clinical observation.
G. Abdomen is soft, non-tender, non-distended: This is a normal physical assessment finding indicating the absence of ascites or organomegaly at this time. It suggests that the fluid volume excess has not yet resulted in significant peritoneal accumulation. No acute nursing or medical follow-up is required for this specific result.
H. Client is alert and oriented x 3: Normal mentation indicates that cerebral perfusion is currently adequate despite the patient's low oxygen saturation. It is a positive sign that the patient is not yet experiencing hypercapnia or severe hypoxia-induced encephalopathy. This baseline is used to monitor for any future neurological decline.
I. Heart rate is 88 bpm: A heart rate of 88 is within the normal adult range of 60 to 100 beats per minute. This indicates that the heart is not currently in a state of compensatory tachycardia to maintain cardiac output. It is a stable finding that does not require immediate clinical follow-up.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "I will take another tablet every 5 minutes if the pain continues up to 3 doses and then I will call 911 if the chest pain does not go away.": This statement reflects the standard emergency protocol for managing acute anginal episodes at home. It ensures the patient receives maximum pharmacological benefit while establishing a clear timeline for seeking emergency medical intervention. Adhering to this 15-minute window is crucial for preventing extensive myocardial damage.
B. "I take this medication at bedtime everything.": Nitroglycerin tablets are intended for the PRN treatment of acute chest pain, not as a scheduled nightly medication. Taking the drug without active symptoms can lead to significant hypotension and unnecessary side effects like headaches. Bedtime dosing is not the indicated use for sublingual nitroglycerin therapy.
C. "I will swallow the tablet whole with grapefruit juice.": Sublingual nitroglycerin must be dissolved under the tongue to bypass first-pass hepatic metabolism and enter the bloodstream rapidly. Swallowing the tablet significantly reduces its effectiveness and delays the onset of action during an ischemic event. Furthermore, grapefruit juice can interact with various cardiovascular medications and should be avoided.
D. "I take three tablets all at one time if I have chest pain.": Taking multiple doses simultaneously can cause a profound and dangerous drop in blood pressure. The doses must be spaced 5 minutes apart to allow the nurse or patient to evaluate the effectiveness and monitor for adverse effects. Proper titration is essential for safe and effective vasodilation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Nitroglycerin: This vasodilator is used to treat anginal chest pain by reducing preload and dilating coronary arteries. It has no role in the management of atrial fibrillation, which is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm. Using a nitrate here would not address the underlying electrical disorganized activity in the atria.
B. Hydrochlorothiazide: As a thiazide diuretic, this medication is used primarily for the long-term management of hypertension and mild fluid retention. It does not possess any antiarrhythmic properties and would not be effective in controlling the ventricular rate. Diuretics are not the standard of care for treating an acute rhythm disturbance on a telemetry strip.
C. Atropine: This anticholinergic agent is indicated for the treatment of symptomatic bradycardia by increasing the heart rate. Atrial fibrillation often requires rate control to prevent tachycardia-induced cardiomyopathy rather than stimulation of a faster rate. Atropine could potentially worsen the clinical situation by causing a dangerously rapid ventricular response.
D. Warfarin: Atrial fibrillation causes blood to pool in the atria, which significantly increases the risk of mural thrombus formation and subsequent embolic stroke. Anticoagulation is a mandatory component of management to prevent these life-altering thromboembolic complications. Warfarin is a standard oral anticoagulant used to maintain a therapeutic INR in patients with this chronic dysrhythmia.
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