A child is diagnosed with acquired aplastic anemia. The nurse knows that this child has the best prognosis with which treatment regimen?
Immunosuppressive therapy.
Chemotherapy.
Bone marrow transplantation.
Blood transfusions.
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Immunosuppressive therapy:This is a common treatment for aplastic anemia when a matched donor is unavailable, especially in older children and adults. However, it is less curative and carries a higher risk of relapse compared to bone marrow transplantation.
B. Chemotherapy: Chemotherapy is not the primary treatment for aplastic anemia. It is mainly used in malignancies. In some cases, chemotherapy may precede transplantation or be part of immunosuppressive therapy, but it is not curative alone.
C. Bone marrow transplantation: This is the treatment of choice and offers the best prognosis, particularly in children with a matched sibling donor. It provides a potential cure by replacing the defective marrow with healthy stem cells.
D. Blood transfusions: Transfusions manage symptoms and prevent complications like anemia or bleeding but do not treat the underlying cause. Long-term use increases the risk of iron overload and alloimmunization.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Aspiration: Aspiration is typically a concern in clients with impaired swallowing, reduced consciousness, or neurologic disorders. Elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) does not directly affect swallowing function or airway protection.
B. Falls: Elevated PTH levels cause hypercalcemia, which can lead to muscle weakness, fatigue, confusion, and bone demineralization. These effects increase the client’s risk for falls and fractures, making fall prevention a key safety priority.
C. Suicide: While chronic illness can impact mood, elevated PTH levels are not directly associated with suicidal ideation. Psychiatric monitoring is important but not the primary safety focus in this case.
D. Hypothermia: PTH imbalance does not significantly affect thermoregulation. Hypothermia is not a typical complication of elevated PTH levels and does not require focused preventive measures in this scenario.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Choices:
- Rupture: Aneurysm rupture is the most serious and immediate complication of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). The client’s gnawing back and abdominal pain, along with a pulsatile abdominal mass and bruit, suggest that the aneurysm is unstable.
- Hypertension: Chronic high blood pressure exerts continuous force on arterial walls, weakening the aortic structure and promoting aneurysm formation and progression. It significantly increases the likelihood of rupture once an aneurysm is present.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices:
- Dissection: Dissection involves a tear in the intimal layer of the artery, creating a false lumen. Although serious, it is more commonly associated with thoracic aortic aneurysms rather than abdominal ones. The client's symptoms and findings are more consistent with rupture.
- Occlusion: Aneurysm-related occlusion refers to blockage of blood flow, which is less common in abdominal aneurysms. The client’s peripheral pulses are normal (2+), indicating adequate distal perfusion. There’s no sign of limb ischemia or thrombotic complications.
- Smoking: Smoking is a known risk factor for developing aneurysms but is not the most direct or strongest predictor of rupture. Its role is more associated with aneurysm formation and progression. Hypertension more specifically correlates with increased rupture risk.
- Hyperlipidemia: High lipid levels contribute to atherosclerosis, which can lead to aneurysm development over time. However, like smoking, it is not as strongly associated with aneurysm rupture as hypertension.
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