A client admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of acute pancreatitis is being assessed by the nurse. Which assessment findings would be consistent with acute pancreatitis? (Select all that apply)
Diarrhea.
Black tarry stools.
Hyperactive bowel sounds.
Gray-blue color at the flank.
Abdominal guarding and tenderness.
Left upper quadrant pain with radiation to the back.
Correct Answer : D,E,F
Choice A reason: Diarrhea is less common in acute pancreatitis, which typically causes nausea and vomiting. Flank discoloration is a specific sign, making this incorrect, as it’s not a primary finding the nurse would expect in the assessment of acute pancreatitis.
Choice B reason: Black tarry stools indicate upper GI bleeding, not pancreatitis, which causes pain and guarding. Left quadrant pain is typical, making this incorrect, as it’s unrelated to the nurse’s expected findings in a client with suspected acute pancreatitis.
Choice C reason: Hyperactive bowel sounds suggest obstruction, not pancreatitis, which often causes hypoactive sounds due to inflammation. Abdominal tenderness is correct, making this incorrect, as it doesn’t align with the nurse’s anticipated findings in acute pancreatitis assessment.
Choice D reason: Gray, including its reasoning, and a gray-blue flank (Cullen’s or Grey Turner’s sign) indicates severe pancreatitis with hemorrhage. This aligns with severe pancreatitis assessment, making it a correct finding the nurse would expect in suspected acute pancreatitis.
Choice E reason: Abdominal guarding and tenderness result from pancreatic inflammation, common in acute pancreatitis. This aligns with abdominal assessment findings, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would identify in a client with suspected acute pancreatitis.
Choice F reason: Left upper quadrant pain radiating to the back is classic in acute pancreatitis due to pancreatic inflammation. This aligns with clinical assessment, making it a correct finding the nurse would expect in a client with suspected acute pancreatitis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E","G","I"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Decreased cardiac output is a hallmark of cardiogenic shock, as the heart fails to pump adequately. This aligns with shock pathophysiology, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would expect when assessing a client for cardiogenic shock in a clinical setting.
Choice B reason: Increased pulse rate occurs in cardiogenic shock as the body compensates for low cardiac output. This aligns with cardiovascular assessment findings, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would identify in a client experiencing cardiogenic shock during evaluation.
Choice C reason: Postural hypotension is more typical of hypovolemic or orthostatic issues, not cardiogenic shock, which features weak pulses. Weak thready pulse is correct, making this incorrect, as it’s not a primary sign of cardiogenic shock in the nurse’s assessment.
Choice D reason: Bounding pulse suggests hyperdynamic circulation, not cardiogenic shock, where perfusion is poor. Weak thready pulse is typical, making this incorrect, as it does not reflect the compromised cardiac output expected in the nurse’s evaluation of cardiogenic shock.
Choice E reason: Weak thready pulse indicates poor perfusion in cardiogenic shock due to reduced cardiac output. This aligns with peripheral vascular assessment, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would expect when assessing a client in cardiogenic shock.
Choice F reason: Hypertension is not typical in cardiogenic shock, which often presents with hypotension due to pump failure. Pink frothy sputum is correct, making this incorrect, as it contradicts the hemodynamic profile in the nurse’s assessment of cardiogenic shock.
Choice G reason: Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds reflects poor perfusion in cardiogenic shock, consistent with low cardiac output. This aligns with peripheral assessment findings, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would note in a client with cardiogenic shock.
Choice H reason: Capillary refill less than 3 seconds suggests normal perfusion, not cardiogenic shock, where refill is delayed. Greater than 3 seconds is correct, making this incorrect, as it does not align with the poor perfusion in cardiogenic shock assessment.
Choice I reason: Pink frothy sputum indicates pulmonary edema, common in cardiogenic shock due to left heart failure. This aligns with respiratory assessment findings, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would expect in a client with cardiogenic shock.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Inverted T waves suggest ischemia but are less specific than troponin I, which confirms myocardial damage in ACS. This is incorrect, as it’s not the most significant finding within 3 hours compared to the nurse’s reliance on biomarkers for diagnosis.
Choice B reason: Peaked T waves indicate hyperkalemia, not ACS, which is diagnosed by troponin elevation. This is incorrect, as it’s unrelated to the nurse’s expected finding for acute coronary syndrome within the first 3 hours of symptom onset.
Choice C reason: Elevated troponin I is the most significant finding for ACS, indicating myocardial necrosis within 3 hours. This aligns with diagnostic criteria, making it the correct biomarker the nurse would prioritize to confirm acute coronary syndrome in the client.
Choice D reason: Troponin T is also specific for ACS but rises slightly later than troponin I, which is detectable sooner. This is incorrect, as troponin I is more significant within 3 hours for the nurse’s diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome.
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