A client asks the nurse why they have to go to therapy and cannot just take the prescribed antidepressant medication. Which would be the most therapeutic response by the nurse?

Both are recommended; since your insurance covers both, that is the best plan for you.

Medications balance brain chemistry, but therapy helps achieve lasting behavior change.

The effects of medications will not last forever; you will need to learn to function without them.

What are the reservations that you have regarding attending therapy sessions?

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Recommending both treatments due to insurance coverage is not therapeutic, as it does not address the clinical rationale. Antidepressants and therapy target different aspects of depression (neurochemical and behavioral), and this response fails to explain their complementary roles effectively.

Choice B reason: Antidepressants correct neurotransmitter imbalances (e.g., serotonin) to alleviate depressive symptoms, while therapy (e.g., CBT) addresses maladaptive thought patterns and behaviors, promoting long-term coping skills. This combination enhances recovery, making this the most therapeutic explanation for the client’s treatment plan.

Choice C reason: Suggesting medications are temporary implies the client will stop treatment, which may not be true for chronic depression. This undermines the importance of ongoing management and therapy’s role in behavioral change, making it less therapeutic and potentially discouraging.

Choice D reason: Asking about reservations may encourage dialogue but does not directly explain the need for therapy alongside medication. It sidesteps the clinical rationale for combined treatment, which is critical for understanding the comprehensive approach to depression management.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Serotonin syndrome involves fever, agitation, and hyperreflexia due to excessive serotonin, typically from SSRIs or MAOIs, not antipsychotics like risperidone. Muscle stiffness and shuffling gait are not characteristic, making this an incorrect cause of the symptoms.

Choice B reason: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome causes severe muscle rigidity, fever, and autonomic instability due to dopamine blockade by antipsychotics. While possible with risperidone, the client’s mild symptoms (stiffness, shuffling gait) are more consistent with extrapyramidal effects than this severe condition.

Choice C reason: Extrapyramidal symptoms, caused by risperidone’s dopamine D2 receptor blockade, include muscle stiffness and shuffling gait (parkinsonism). These occur due to disrupted basal ganglia function, mimicking Parkinson’s disease, and are common with antipsychotics, making this the most likely cause.

Choice D reason: Tardive dyskinesia involves involuntary movements like grimacing or lip smacking, typically after long-term antipsychotic use. Muscle stiffness and shuffling gait are not characteristic, as these are parkinsonian symptoms, making this less likely than extrapyramidal symptoms.

A. Experience anxiety without feeling overwhelmed B. Suppress anxious feelings C. Confront the source of anxiety directly D. Report absence of all anxiety symptoms

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Relaxation techniques, such as deep breathing or progressive muscle relaxation, modulate the autonomic nervous system, reducing sympathetic arousal. This allows the client to experience anxiety without overwhelming physiological or emotional responses, promoting better coping and emotional regulation, which is a realistic and therapeutic goal.

Choice B reason: Suppressing anxious feelings is not a realistic goal, as anxiety is a natural response. Relaxation techniques aim to manage, not eliminate, anxiety by reducing its intensity. Suppression can lead to emotional avoidance, potentially worsening underlying psychological conditions and hindering effective coping strategies.

Choice C reason: Confronting the source of anxiety directly is a goal of cognitive-behavioral therapy, not relaxation techniques. These techniques focus on physiological calming rather than addressing root causes, which requires structured therapeutic intervention, making this an inappropriate goal for relaxation training.

Choice D reason: Reporting the absence of all anxiety symptoms is unrealistic, as anxiety is a normal human emotion. Relaxation techniques aim to reduce the intensity and impact of anxiety, not eliminate it entirely, making this goal unattainable and less relevant for clients learning these methods.

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A client asks the nurse why they have to go to therapy and cannot just take the prescribed antidepressant medication. Which would be the most therapeutic response by the nurse?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. The nurse observes muscle stiffness and a shuffling gait. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The best goal for a client learning a relaxation technique is that the client will

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which statement is true?

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